A client is teaching a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for management of hypertension. Which of the following Instructions should the nurse include?

"Reduce intake of potassium-rich foods."

"Take this medication before bedtime."

"Avoid grape juice.'

"Monitor for leg cramps."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) "Reduce intake of potassium-rich foods":
Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication that can cause potassium loss through increased urinary excretion. Therefore, instructing the client to reduce intake of potassium-rich foods could further decrease potassium levels, leading to hypokalemia. Instead, clients taking hydrochlorothiazide should be encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods to help maintain normal potassium levels, unless otherwise instructed by their healthcare provider.

B) "Take this medication before bedtime":
While hydrochlorothiazide can be taken once daily, it is typically recommended to take it in the morning rather than before bedtime. Taking the medication earlier in the day can help minimize the need to wake up during the night to urinate, as it is a diuretic that increases urine production. Therefore, instructing the client to take hydrochlorothiazide before bedtime is not the optimal recommendation.

C) "Avoid grape juice":
There is no significant interaction between hydrochlorothiazide and grape juice. In general, grapefruit juice is known to interact with certain medications by inhibiting cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver, affecting drug metabolism. However, grape juice is not known to interact with hydrochlorothiazide, so advising the client to avoid grape juice is not necessary.

D) "Monitor for leg cramps":
This is the correct instruction. Leg cramps can be a potential side effect of hydrochlorothiazide therapy due to electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. By monitoring for leg cramps, the client can promptly report any symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. This instruction promotes client safety and awareness of potential adverse effects associated with the medication."

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Bethanechol is not indicated for the relief of severe pain following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Pain management for postoperative discomfort typically involves analgesics such as opioids or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), depending on the severity of pain. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

B) Frequent episodes of painful urination:
While frequent episodes of painful urination may occur after a TURP due to irritation of the urinary tract, bethanechol is not typically administered to address this symptom. Painful urination is often managed with analgesics and may improve as the urinary tract heals. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

C) An inability to void:
This is the correct response. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction and can be used to treat urinary retention or an inability to void following surgical procedures such as TURP. By increasing bladder tone and promoting urination, bethanechol helps relieve urinary retention and prevents complications associated with prolonged bladder distension.

D) Bladder spasms:
While bladder spasms may occur postoperatively following a TURP, bethanechol is not typically administered to address this symptom. Bladder spasms are often managed with anticholinergic medications or muscle relaxants to reduce involuntary contractions of the bladder. Therefore, this option is incorrect.”

Correct Answer is ["100"]

Explanation

We are given the following information:

Medication: Ticarcillin/clavulanate 3.1 g

Administration route: Intermittent IV bolus over 30 minutes

Available solution: Ticarcillin/clavulanate 3.1 g in 50 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (NSS)

However, the IV pump controls the rate of delivery over time (usually in hours). An intermittent bolus means the medication is infused all at once over a shorter period (30 minutes in this case).

The pump rate calculation here focuses on the total volume of the available solution containing the medication to be delivered, not necessarily on the medication amount itself.

Therefore, we need to find the rate at which the total volume of 50 mL solution should be delivered over 30 minutes.

Conversion is necessary because pump rates are typically set in hours (hr).

Time (hours) = 30 minutes / 60 minutes/hour = 0.5 hours

Now, calculate the flow rate:

Flow rate (mL/hr) = Total volume (mL) / Infusion time (hours)

Flow rate (mL/hr) = 50 mL / 0.5 hours = 100 mL/hr

Round to the nearest whole number as requested.

Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to deliver approximately 100 mL/hr. This ensures the total 50 mL solution containing the 3.1 g of ticarcillin/clavulanate is delivered over the intended 30-minute period.

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A client is teaching a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for management of hypertension. Which of the following Instructions should the nurse include?

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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse should plan to administer the client’s PRN bethanechol when the client reports which of the following manifestations?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["100"]

Explanation

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