A nurse is explaining myasthenia gravis to a family. Which of the following points would be included in the explanation? (Select All that Apply.)
Is it caused by demyelination of the nerve fibers.
Is it thought to be an autoimmune disease.
It is associated with destruction of acetylcholine receptor sites.
Once symptoms present, it has a 5-year survival rate.
It is a chronic and progressive muscular disease.
Is it best treated with antibiotics.
Correct Answer : B,C,E
A) Is it caused by demyelination of the nerve fibers:
Myasthenia gravis is not primarily caused by demyelination of nerve fibers. It is characterized by dysfunction at the neuromuscular junction, specifically involving the acetylcholine receptors.
B) Is it thought to be an autoimmune disease:
This is correct. Myasthenia gravis is considered an autoimmune disorder in which the body's immune system mistakenly targets and attacks its own tissues, particularly the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
C) It is associated with destruction of acetylcholine receptor sites:
This is correct. In myasthenia gravis, there is a reduction in the number of functional acetylcholine receptors due to autoimmune-mediated destruction or blocking of these receptors.
D) Once symptoms present, it has a 5-year survival rate:
This statement is inaccurate. Myasthenia gravis is a chronic condition, but survival rates are not determined by the onset of symptoms. With appropriate treatment, many individuals with myasthenia gravis can manage their symptoms effectively and have a normal life expectancy.
E) It is a chronic and progressive muscular disease:
This is correct. Myasthenia gravis is a chronic neuromuscular disorder characterized by fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue. While it is chronic, it is not necessarily progressive in all cases, as symptoms may stabilize or improve with treatment.
F) Is it best treated with antibiotics:
Antibiotics are not the primary treatment for myasthenia gravis. Treatment typically involves medications that enhance neuromuscular transmission, such as acetylcholinesterase inhibitors or immunosuppressive drugs, along with other supportive measures.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Orthostatic hypotension is indicated by a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 5 mm Hg:
Orthostatic hypotension is typically defined by a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or more or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more within three minutes of standing up. Diastolic blood pressure alone is not the primary indicator of orthostatic hypotension.
B) Orthostatic hypotension is indicated by a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 5 mm Hg:
While a decrease in systolic blood pressure is a component of orthostatic hypotension, the criterion for diagnosing orthostatic hypotension is a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or more or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more within three minutes of standing up.
C) Orthostatic hypotension increases a client's risk of a fall:
This statement is correct. Orthostatic hypotension, characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, can lead to dizziness and lightheadedness, increasing the risk of falls, particularly in older adults.
D) Orthostatic hypotension increases a client's risk of a pulmonary emboli:
Orthostatic hypotension is not directly associated with an increased risk of pulmonary emboli. Pulmonary embolism is a separate condition involving a blockage in the pulmonary artery or its branches, typically caused by a blood clot."
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Bethanechol is not indicated for the relief of severe pain following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Pain management for postoperative discomfort typically involves analgesics such as opioids or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), depending on the severity of pain. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
B) Frequent episodes of painful urination:
While frequent episodes of painful urination may occur after a TURP due to irritation of the urinary tract, bethanechol is not typically administered to address this symptom. Painful urination is often managed with analgesics and may improve as the urinary tract heals. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
C) An inability to void:
This is the correct response. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction and can be used to treat urinary retention or an inability to void following surgical procedures such as TURP. By increasing bladder tone and promoting urination, bethanechol helps relieve urinary retention and prevents complications associated with prolonged bladder distension.
D) Bladder spasms:
While bladder spasms may occur postoperatively following a TURP, bethanechol is not typically administered to address this symptom. Bladder spasms are often managed with anticholinergic medications or muscle relaxants to reduce involuntary contractions of the bladder. Therefore, this option is incorrect.”
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