A client comes into the clinic complaining of fatigue. Blood work shows an increased bilirubin concentration and an increased reticulocyte count. What would the nurse suspect the patient has?
Leukemia
Hemolytic anemia
Hypoproliferative anemia
Thrombocytopenia
The Correct Answer is B
A. Leukemia:
Explanation: Leukemia is a cancer of the blood-forming tissues, including the bone marrow and lymphatic system. It typically presents with an abnormal increase in white blood cells. While fatigue can be a symptom, increased bilirubin concentration and an increased reticulocyte count are not typical findings in leukemia.
B. Hemolytic Anemia:
Explanation: Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the premature destruction of red blood cells, leading to an increased release of bilirubin (from the breakdown of hemoglobin) and an increased reticulocyte count (as the body attempts to compensate by producing more red blood cells). This is a likely possibility given the presented symptoms.
C. Hypoproliferative Anemia:
Explanation: Hypoproliferative anemia is characterized by a decreased production of red blood cells. It is unlikely in this scenario, as an increased reticulocyte count suggests an attempt by the bone marrow to increase red blood cell production.
D. Thrombocytopenia:
Explanation: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count. It does not typically present with an increased bilirubin concentration or an increased reticulocyte count.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "I will make sure I call the diabetes educator each time I adjust my insulin dose."
This statement suggests a reliance on insulin adjustment and implies frequent contact with the diabetes educator. However, it doesn't address the primary treatment for type 2 diabetes.
B. "I read that a pancreas transplant will provide a cure for my diabetes."
This statement mentions a pancreas transplant, which is a significant and rare intervention typically reserved for severe cases of diabetes. However, it's not considered the primary treatment for type 2 diabetes.
C. "I will make sure to follow the weight loss plan designed by the dietitian."
This statement aligns with a key aspect of managing type 2 diabetes, as weight management, along with diet and exercise, is a primary approach. Lifestyle modifications, including weight loss, are often part of the primary treatment plan.
D. "I will take my oral anti-diabetic agents when my morning blood sugar is high."
This statement indicates an understanding of the importance of oral anti-diabetic agents, which are commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes. Timing medication based on blood sugar levels is a key aspect of treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol):
Explanation: Acute adrenal insufficiency is a life-threatening condition characterized by a sudden deficiency of adrenal hormones. In this situation, intravenous glucocorticoids such as methylprednisolone are administered to replace the deficient hormones and stabilize the patient. This is the appropriate intervention to address the acute adrenal crisis.
B. Hypotonic saline:
Explanation: Hypotonic saline is not the first-line treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. The priority is to replace glucocorticoids to address the adrenal hormone deficiency.
C. Potassium (K-dur):
Explanation: While electrolyte imbalances can occur in adrenal insufficiency, potassium replacement alone does not address the primary issue of glucocorticoid deficiency in acute adrenal insufficiency.
D. Regular Insulin:
Explanation: Regular insulin is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. Glucocorticoid replacement, such as methylprednisolone, is the key intervention.
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