A client with a history of Addison's disease and flu-like symptoms accompanied by nausea and vomiting over the past week is brought to the facility. His wife reports that he acted confused and was extremely weak when he awoke that morning. The client's blood pressure is 90/58 mm Hg, his pulse is 116 beats/minute, and his temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). A diagnosis of acute adrenal insufficiency is made. What should the nurse expect to administer by I.V. infusion?
Methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol)
Hypotonic saline
Potassium (K-dur)
Regular Insulin
The Correct Answer is A
A. Methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol):
Explanation: Acute adrenal insufficiency is a life-threatening condition characterized by a sudden deficiency of adrenal hormones. In this situation, intravenous glucocorticoids such as methylprednisolone are administered to replace the deficient hormones and stabilize the patient. This is the appropriate intervention to address the acute adrenal crisis.
B. Hypotonic saline:
Explanation: Hypotonic saline is not the first-line treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. The priority is to replace glucocorticoids to address the adrenal hormone deficiency.
C. Potassium (K-dur):
Explanation: While electrolyte imbalances can occur in adrenal insufficiency, potassium replacement alone does not address the primary issue of glucocorticoid deficiency in acute adrenal insufficiency.
D. Regular Insulin:
Explanation: Regular insulin is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. Glucocorticoid replacement, such as methylprednisolone, is the key intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Urinalysis shows trace protein:
Explanation: While trace protein in the urine is generally better than higher levels, it doesn't provide a specific measure of blood glucose control. Protein in the urine can be an early sign of kidney damage in diabetes, but it doesn't directly indicate blood glucose control.
B. Hemoglobin A1C of 5.6%:
Explanation: Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is a long-term indicator of blood glucose control. An HbA1C level of 5.6% is within the target range for individuals with diabetes and suggests good control of blood glucose over the past 2-3 months.
C. Fasting blood glucose of 110 mg/dL:
Explanation: Fasting blood glucose gives a snapshot of blood glucose at a specific moment. While 110 mg/dL is a fairly normal fasting level, it doesn't provide information about long-term control. A single fasting glucose measurement may not reflect overall glucose management.
D. Urine ketones are negative:
Explanation: Negative urine ketones indicate that the body is not currently using fat for energy. While this is a good sign in the moment, it doesn't give information about overall blood glucose control over time. Urine ketones can fluctuate based on various factors, including diet and activity level.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Development of a buffalo hump and moon face:
This is associated with Cushing's syndrome, a disorder characterized by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol.
B. Central obesity and purple striations:
Also indicative of Cushing's syndrome, where excess cortisol can lead to the accumulation of fat in the abdominal area (central obesity) and the development of purple stretch marks (striae).
C. Sudden weight loss without dieting:
This is more characteristic of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive, leading to increased metabolism and unintended weight loss.
D. Positive Trousseau's sign when checking the client's blood pressure:
Trousseau's sign is associated with hypocalcemia and is seen in conditions affecting the parathyroid gland rather than the thyroid. It involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above the systolic pressure for a few minutes.
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