A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes states he is not comfortable with self-injections and asks the nurse if oral an anti- diabetic agent can be prescribed instead. Which of the following responses from the nurse is appropriate?

"Diet, exercise and oral medications can be effective. I will ask the physician to prescribe Metformin"

"Your body does not produce insulin, and the only treatment is injected insulin"

"Glucophage can help your body better utilize the insulin secreted by the pancreas"

"Initially, you will need injections, but after your body adjusts to the insulin, you can switch to Metformin"

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "Diet, exercise, and oral medications can be effective. I will ask the physician to prescribe Metformin":
Explanation: This statement is not accurate for type 1 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes results from the inability of the pancreas to produce insulin, so oral medications like Metformin, which work to increase insulin sensitivity or reduce glucose production in the liver, are not effective. Insulin replacement is the mainstay of treatment for type 1 diabetes.

B. "Your body does not produce insulin, and the only treatment is injected insulin":
Explanation: This is the correct statement. In type 1 diabetes, the pancreas does not produce insulin or produces very little, and insulin cannot be taken orally because it would be broken down in the digestive system. Therefore, injections are the primary and necessary mode of insulin delivery.

C. "Glucophage can help your body better utilize the insulin secreted by the pancreas":
Explanation: This statement is more applicable to type 2 diabetes, where the pancreas may still produce insulin, but the body's cells are resistant to its effects. In type 1 diabetes, the issue is a lack of insulin production, so medications to improve insulin utilization are not relevant.

D. "Initially, you will need injections, but after your body adjusts to the insulin, you can switch to Metformin":
Explanation: This is not accurate for type 1 diabetes. The need for insulin in type 1 diabetes is not something the body adjusts to over time. Insulin is a lifelong requirement for individuals with type 1 diabetes, and it cannot be replaced by oral medications like Metformin.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol):
Explanation: Acute adrenal insufficiency is a life-threatening condition characterized by a sudden deficiency of adrenal hormones. In this situation, intravenous glucocorticoids such as methylprednisolone are administered to replace the deficient hormones and stabilize the patient. This is the appropriate intervention to address the acute adrenal crisis.

B. Hypotonic saline:
Explanation: Hypotonic saline is not the first-line treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. The priority is to replace glucocorticoids to address the adrenal hormone deficiency.

C. Potassium (K-dur):
Explanation: While electrolyte imbalances can occur in adrenal insufficiency, potassium replacement alone does not address the primary issue of glucocorticoid deficiency in acute adrenal insufficiency.

D. Regular Insulin:
Explanation: Regular insulin is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. Glucocorticoid replacement, such as methylprednisolone, is the key intervention.

A. Metabolic Acidosis B. Respiratory Acidosis C. Metabolic Alkalosis D. Respiratory Alkalosis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and low bicarbonate (HCO3) level. In this case, the pH is low (indicating acidosis), but the bicarbonate level is within the normal range, which is inconsistent with metabolic acidosis.

B. Respiratory Acidosis
This is correct. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), leading to a decrease in pH. The ABG values in this case indicate elevated PaCO2 and a low pH, consistent with respiratory acidosis.

C. Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and high bicarbonate (HCO3) level. In this case, the pH is low (indicating acidosis), which is inconsistent with metabolic alkalosis.

D. Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a low partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) and a high pH. In this case, the PaCO2 is elevated, which is inconsistent with respiratory alkalosis.

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A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes states he is not comfortable with self-injections and asks the nurse if oral an anti- diabetic agent can be prescribed instead. Which of the following responses from the nurse is appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas (ABG) values of a client admitted with pneumonia: pH, 7.32; PaCO2, 48 mm Hg; PaO2, 70 mm Hg; and HCO3, 24 mEq/L. What do these values indicate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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