The nurse reviews the blood gas results of a client with atelectasis. The nurse analyzes the results and determines that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which results validate the nurse's findings?
pH 7.28, pCO2 36, HCO3 23
pH 7.52, pCO2 28, HCO3 25
pH 7.25, pCO2 50, HCO3 22
pH7.35, pCO2 40, HCO3 24
The Correct Answer is C
A. pH 7.28, pCO2 36, HCO3 23:
Explanation: The pH is low, indicating acidosis. However, the pCO2 is within the normal range, which is not consistent with respiratory acidosis. The HCO3 is slightly low but not significantly, and this doesn't align with typical findings in respiratory acidosis.
B. pH 7.52, pCO2 28, HCO3 25:
Explanation: The pH is high, indicating alkalosis. The pCO2 is below the normal range, which is not consistent with respiratory acidosis. The HCO3 is within the normal range, and these values are not typical for respiratory acidosis.
C. pH 7.25, pCO2 50, HCO3 22:
Explanation: The pH is low, indicating acidosis. The pCO2 is elevated, which is typical in respiratory acidosis. The HCO3 is within the normal range, suggesting uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
D. pH 7.35, pCO2 40, HCO3 24:
Explanation: The pH is within the normal range, and both pCO2 and HCO3 are normal. These values do not indicate acidosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol):
Explanation: Acute adrenal insufficiency is a life-threatening condition characterized by a sudden deficiency of adrenal hormones. In this situation, intravenous glucocorticoids such as methylprednisolone are administered to replace the deficient hormones and stabilize the patient. This is the appropriate intervention to address the acute adrenal crisis.
B. Hypotonic saline:
Explanation: Hypotonic saline is not the first-line treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. The priority is to replace glucocorticoids to address the adrenal hormone deficiency.
C. Potassium (K-dur):
Explanation: While electrolyte imbalances can occur in adrenal insufficiency, potassium replacement alone does not address the primary issue of glucocorticoid deficiency in acute adrenal insufficiency.
D. Regular Insulin:
Explanation: Regular insulin is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency. Glucocorticoid replacement, such as methylprednisolone, is the key intervention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Diet, exercise, and oral medications can be effective. I will ask the physician to prescribe Metformin":
Explanation: This statement is not accurate for type 1 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes results from the inability of the pancreas to produce insulin, so oral medications like Metformin, which work to increase insulin sensitivity or reduce glucose production in the liver, are not effective. Insulin replacement is the mainstay of treatment for type 1 diabetes.
B. "Your body does not produce insulin, and the only treatment is injected insulin":
Explanation: This is the correct statement. In type 1 diabetes, the pancreas does not produce insulin or produces very little, and insulin cannot be taken orally because it would be broken down in the digestive system. Therefore, injections are the primary and necessary mode of insulin delivery.
C. "Glucophage can help your body better utilize the insulin secreted by the pancreas":
Explanation: This statement is more applicable to type 2 diabetes, where the pancreas may still produce insulin, but the body's cells are resistant to its effects. In type 1 diabetes, the issue is a lack of insulin production, so medications to improve insulin utilization are not relevant.
D. "Initially, you will need injections, but after your body adjusts to the insulin, you can switch to Metformin":
Explanation: This is not accurate for type 1 diabetes. The need for insulin in type 1 diabetes is not something the body adjusts to over time. Insulin is a lifelong requirement for individuals with type 1 diabetes, and it cannot be replaced by oral medications like Metformin.
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