A patient is post-op from knee surgery. The patient has been receiving Morphine 4 mg IV every 2 hours. The nurse notices the patient is exhibiting a respiratory rate of 8 and is extremely drowsy. Which of the following conditions is the patient at risk for?

Respiratory acidosis

Hypokalemia

Metabolic acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Respiratory acidosis:
This occurs when there is inadequate removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) by the respiratory system. In the case of the patient post-op from knee surgery receiving Morphine, the opioid can cause respiratory depression, leading to the retention of CO2 and the development of respiratory acidosis. Signs include a decreased respiratory rate and drowsiness.

B. Hypokalemia:
This is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. While opioids can cause constipation, they are not directly associated with hypokalemia.

C. Metabolic acidosis:
This occurs when there is an increase in acid production or a loss of bicarbonate, leading to an imbalance in the body's acid-base status. The symptoms of metabolic acidosis are not typically associated with opioid use.

D. Respiratory alkalosis:
This occurs when there is excessive elimination of CO2, leading to decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Opioids, especially in higher doses, are more likely to cause respiratory depression and acidosis rather than alkalosis. The patient's low respiratory rate and drowsiness are indicative of respiratory acidosis rather than alkalosis.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "Diet, exercise, and oral medications can be effective. I will ask the physician to prescribe Metformin":
Explanation: This statement is not accurate for type 1 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes results from the inability of the pancreas to produce insulin, so oral medications like Metformin, which work to increase insulin sensitivity or reduce glucose production in the liver, are not effective. Insulin replacement is the mainstay of treatment for type 1 diabetes.

B. "Your body does not produce insulin, and the only treatment is injected insulin":
Explanation: This is the correct statement. In type 1 diabetes, the pancreas does not produce insulin or produces very little, and insulin cannot be taken orally because it would be broken down in the digestive system. Therefore, injections are the primary and necessary mode of insulin delivery.

C. "Glucophage can help your body better utilize the insulin secreted by the pancreas":
Explanation: This statement is more applicable to type 2 diabetes, where the pancreas may still produce insulin, but the body's cells are resistant to its effects. In type 1 diabetes, the issue is a lack of insulin production, so medications to improve insulin utilization are not relevant.

D. "Initially, you will need injections, but after your body adjusts to the insulin, you can switch to Metformin":
Explanation: This is not accurate for type 1 diabetes. The need for insulin in type 1 diabetes is not something the body adjusts to over time. Insulin is a lifelong requirement for individuals with type 1 diabetes, and it cannot be replaced by oral medications like Metformin.

A. Erythropoietin (Epogen) B. Eltrombopag (Promacta) C. GM-CSF (Leukine) D. Thrombopoietin (TPO)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Erythropoietin (Epogen):
Explanation: Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells. In chronic kidney disease, especially when associated with anemia, the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys may be reduced. Erythropoietin (Epogen) is commonly used to stimulate the production of red blood cells and manage anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease.

B. Eltrombopag (Promacta):
Explanation: Eltrombopag is a medication used to stimulate the production of platelets and is primarily indicated for conditions associated with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). It is not used to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease.

C. GM-CSF (Leukine):
Explanation: Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF or Leukine) is a medication that stimulates the production of white blood cells and is used in certain conditions to address decreased white blood cell counts. It is not typically used for managing anemia.

D. Thrombopoietin (TPO):
Explanation: Thrombopoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of platelets. Medications that mimic the action of thrombopoietin, such as romiplostim and eltrombopag, are used to treat thrombocytopenia. Thrombopoietin is not used for the treatment of anemia.

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A patient is post-op from knee surgery. The patient has been receiving Morphine 4 mg IV every 2 hours. The nurse notices the patient is exhibiting a respiratory rate of 8 and is extremely drowsy. Which of the following conditions is the patient at risk for?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes states he is not comfortable with self-injections and asks the nurse if oral an anti- diabetic agent can be prescribed instead. Which of the following responses from the nurse is appropriate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with chronic kidney disease has chronic anemia. What pharmacologic alternative to blood transfusion may be used for this patient?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is providing education to a client with iron deficiency anemia who has been prescribed iron supplements. What should the nurse include in health education?

A patient is post-op from knee surgery. The patient has been receiving Morphine 4 mg IV every 2 hours. The nurse notices the patient is exhibiting a respiratory rate of 8 and is extremely drowsy. Which of the following conditions is the patient at risk for?

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