A client with chronic kidney disease has chronic anemia. What pharmacologic alternative to blood transfusion may be used for this patient?
Erythropoietin (Epogen)
Eltrombopag (Promacta)
GM-CSF (Leukine)
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Erythropoietin (Epogen):
Explanation: Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells. In chronic kidney disease, especially when associated with anemia, the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys may be reduced. Erythropoietin (Epogen) is commonly used to stimulate the production of red blood cells and manage anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease.
B. Eltrombopag (Promacta):
Explanation: Eltrombopag is a medication used to stimulate the production of platelets and is primarily indicated for conditions associated with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). It is not used to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease.
C. GM-CSF (Leukine):
Explanation: Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF or Leukine) is a medication that stimulates the production of white blood cells and is used in certain conditions to address decreased white blood cell counts. It is not typically used for managing anemia.
D. Thrombopoietin (TPO):
Explanation: Thrombopoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of platelets. Medications that mimic the action of thrombopoietin, such as romiplostim and eltrombopag, are used to treat thrombocytopenia. Thrombopoietin is not used for the treatment of anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A.Regular insulin typically begins to take effect 30 minutes after administration. Administering insulin at the time of the meal (1645) would not allow enough time for the insulin to reach its onset of action, potentially resulting in the blood glucose level being high during the meal.
B.Regular insulin has an onset of action of 30 minutes. By administering the insulin at 1615, it will start to take effect by 1645, when the meal arrives, and help ensure the insulin action aligns with the meal, preventing postprandial hyperglycemia.
C.Administering insulin at 1545 would be too early and could lead to the insulin peaking before the meal, which could result in hypoglycemia if the insulin peak occurs before the patient has food to absorb the glucose.
D.Administering insulin at 1600 would result in the insulin starting to work too soon, with the onset happening before the meal and possibly leading to hypoglycemia if the insulin peaks before the meal is consumed.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "If a vial of insulin will be used up within 21 days, it may be kept at room temperature."
This statement suggests a duration of up to 21 days for room temperature storage after the vial is in use. However, most insulins can typically be stored at room temperature for up to 28 days after initial use. This recommendation might be more conservative than necessary for many types of insulin.
B. "If a vial of insulin will be used up within 2 weeks, it may be kept at room temperature."
This choice suggests a timeframe of 14 days for room temperature storage after opening the vial. However, for many insulins, the recommended duration for room temperature storage after opening is up to 28 days.
C. "If you are going to use up the vial within 1 month, it can be kept at room temperature."
This option extends the timeframe to 1 month for room temperature storage after the vial is in use. However, the generally recommended duration for many insulins is up to 28 days after opening.
D. "If a vial of insulin will be used up within 1 week, it may be kept at room temperature."
This choice suggests a very short duration of 7 days for room temperature storage after opening the vial. Most insulins can typically be stored at room temperature for a longer duration after initial use.
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