A 78-kg patient in septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. After initial fluid volume resuscitation, the patient's urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question?
Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV.
Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.
Increase normal saline infusion to 250 ml/hr.
Use norepinephrine to keep systolic BP above 90 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, to a patient in septic shock with low urine output could exacerbate hypovolemia and worsen organ perfusion. It could further reduce preload, exacerbating hypotension, and impairing cardiac output. Loop diuretics are typically contraindicated in hypovolemic shock.
A. Corticosteroids such as hydrocortisone can help improve vascular tone and responsiveness to vasopressors. Given the patient's clinical presentation and lack of response to initial fluid resuscitation, administering hydrocortisone is appropriate.
C. Increasing the fluid infusion rate can help restore intravascular volume and improve organ perfusion. However, caution should be exercised to avoid fluid overload and pulmonary edema.
D .Norepinephrine is a vasopressor commonly used to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure in septic shock. It helps maintain perfusion pressure to vital organs, thereby supporting organ function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex: This is the correct answer. In a client with a ventricular pacemaker, the pacemaker spikes should precede each QRS complex on the ECG strip. This indicates that the pacemaker is appropriately stimulating the ventricles to depolarize and initiate a heartbeat. The
presence of pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex signifies that the pacemaker is functioning properly and effectively pacing the ventricles.
B. Pacemaker spikes occurring after each QRS complex would suggest a malfunction or inappropriate timing of the pacemaker. In this scenario, the pacemaker would not be pacing the ventricles as intended. This would be an abnormal finding and would require further assessment and intervention.
C. Pacemaker spikes preceding each P wave would suggest pacing of the atria rather than the ventricles. This would indicate a different type of pacemaker (atrial pacemaker) or inappropriate pacing settings for a ventricular pacemaker. In either case, it would be considered abnormal for a ventricular pacemaker and would require evaluation and possibly reprogramming of the pacemaker.
D. Pacemaker spikes occurring with each T wave would be an abnormal finding and would suggest interference or oversensing by the pacemaker. This could lead to inappropriate pacing or dysrhythmias. It would require further investigation and correction to ensure proper pacemaker function.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Amiodarone is a Class III antiarrhythmic medication commonly used for the acute management of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. It works by blocking multiple ion channels, prolonging the action potential duration, and slowing conduction in the atria and ventricles. Amiodarone is often used when other interventions such as vagal maneuvers or beta blockers are ineffective or contraindicated. In this scenario, where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic, intravenous amiodarone may be administered to control the ventricular rate and stabilize hemodynamics
A. Bearing down, or the Valsalva maneuver, is a vagal maneuver that can sometimes help slow the heart rate in certain arrhythmias by increasing parasympathetic tone. However, it may not be effective or safe in all situations, especially if the patient is hypotensive or confused. In this scenario, immediate pharmacological intervention is likely needed to control the heart rate and stabilize hemodynamics.
B. Lidocaine is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It is not considered a first-line agent for atrial fibrillation and may not effectively control the ventricular rate in this situation.
D. While beta blockers are commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation, they may not be the best choice in this scenario where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic. Beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure and exacerbate hypotension, especially in patients with compromised hemodynamics. In such cases, other rate-controlling agents like calcium channel blockers or amiodarone may be preferred.
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