The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure with an EF of 40%. The client has a BP of 170/67 with an HR of 60. He currently is in normal sinus rhythm and has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours. Which medication would the nurse expect to give first?
Isosorbide PO
Nitroglycerin Drip
Dopamine drip
Normal Saline Bolus
The Correct Answer is D
D Normal saline bolus administration is indicated for hypovolemia or inadequate intravascular volume, which can lead to decreased cardiac output and hypotension. In this scenario, the client has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours, indicating decreased urine output and potential hypovolemia. The elevated blood pressure (170/67 mmHg) suggests possible volume overload or fluid retention, but the decreased urine output raises concerns for inadequate intravascular volume. Therefore, administering a normal saline bolus may be the first priority to optimize intravascular volume and improve cardiac output.
A Isosorbide mononitrate is a vasodilator commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and angina. It helps reduce preload and afterload, thereby decreasing the workload on the heart. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no indication of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion. Therefore, isosorbide PO may not be the first priority medication at this time.
B Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator commonly used to manage acute heart failure exacerbations and acute coronary syndromes. It helps reduce preload and afterload, improving cardiac output and relieving symptoms of heart failure. In this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated, but the heart rate is normal, and there are no signs of acute decompensation. Therefore, initiating a nitroglycerin drip may not be the first priority unless the client develops symptoms of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion.
C Dopamine is a vasopressor medication that can be used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in patients with hypotension or shock. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no evidence of hypotension. Therefore, initiating a dopamine drip may not be appropriate at this time and could potentially exacerbate hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Elective cardioversion involves the synchronized delivery of a therapeutic electrical shock to the heart to restore normal sinus rhythm in a patient with a tachyarrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. However, ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by a rapid heart rate originating from the ventricles, and it requires immediate intervention due to the risk of deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation (VF) and cardiac arrest. Therefore, elective cardioversion is not appropriate for treating VT.
B. Defibrillation involves the unsynchronized delivery of a high-energy electrical shock to the heart to terminate life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT). In the case of a conscious patient with pulse-sustaining ventricular tachycardia, immediate defibrillation may not be necessary. However, if the patient deteriorates into pulseless VT or VF, prompt defibrillation is required to restore normal cardiac rhythm and circulation.
C. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is a procedure performed in a cardiac catheterization lab to treat certain cardiac arrhythmias by delivering radiofrequency energy to the specific area of the heart responsible for the abnormal rhythm. While radiofrequency catheter ablation may be considered for certain types of sustained ventricular tachycardia that are refractory to medical therapy or deemed to be originating from a specific site in the heart, it is not the immediate intervention for hemodynamically unstable ventricular tachycardia.
D. CPR is an emergency procedure performed on individuals experiencing cardiac arrest or a life- threatening medical emergency. In the case of ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse, the patient is still perfusing, and CPR is not indicated. However, if the patient deteriorates into pulseless VT or ventricular fibrillation (VF), CPR may be initiated along with immediate defibrillation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is a common cause of cardiogenic shock. In myocardial infarction, part of the heart muscle becomes ischemic or necrotic due to occlusion of a coronary artery. This leads to impaired cardiac function and reduced cardiac output, resulting in cardiogenic shock. Prompt recognition and treatment of myocardial infarction are crucial to prevent or manage cardiogenic shock.
A. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can lead to systemic vasodilation and distributive shock, but it is not a common cause of cardiogenic shock. In anaphylaxis, the primary mechanism of shock is typically related to widespread vasodilation and increased vascular permeability rather than impaired cardiac function.
B. Hypovolemic shock occurs due to a decrease in intravascular volume, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion. It is not a common cause of cardiogenic shock, as the underlying mechanism is different. In hypovolemic shock, the primary issue is the loss of circulating blood volume, whereas cardiogenic shock involves impaired cardiac function.
C. Pulmonary embolism can lead to acute right heart strain or failure, which may result in hemodynamic instability and shock. However, pulmonary embolism typically causes obstructive shock rather than cardiogenic shock. Obstructive shock occurs when blood flow is obstructed, such as by a pulmonary embolism, leading to reduced cardiac output.
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