An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. What should the nurse plan to do?

Give PRN lorazepam (Ativan) and cancel the transfer.

Obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient.

Notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer.

Inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. This allows for the patient's condition to be re-evaluated, ensuring that they receive the necessary care and attention before being transferred.

A. Benzodiazepines can cause sedation, cognitive impairment, and delirium, which may worsen the patient's condition. Canceling the transfer without addressing the underlying cause of confusion may delay appropriate management.

B. Restraints can increase agitation, anxiety, and risk of injury, and they do not address the underlying cause of confusion. Restraints should only be considered as a last resort if all other measures to ensure patient safety have been exhausted.

D. This option is not appropriate because transferring the patient without addressing the new-onset confusion could compromise patient safety. It's essential to identify and manage the underlying cause of confusion before transferring the patient to another unit.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Right-sided heart failure leads to congestion of the systemic venous circulation, resulting in increased central venous pressure (CVP). Elevated CVP is a hallmark sign of right-sided heart failure and is often used clinically to assess right ventricular preload and volume status.

A. BNP is a hormone secreted by the heart in response to increased ventricular stretch and volume overload, and its levels are usually elevated in heart failure, including both left-sided and right-sided heart failure.

C. Specific gravity refers to the concentration of solutes in urine and is often used as a measure of urine concentration.

D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is a measure of left atrial pressure and left ventricular end- diastolic pressure. In right-sided heart failure, the primary hemodynamic abnormality is congestion of the systemic venous circulation, rather than elevated left-sided pressures.

A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. A client who is postoperative with shallow respirations at a rate of 9/min is likely not adequately eliminating carbon dioxide from their body due to hypoventilation. This retention of carbon dioxide can lead to an increase in the partial pressure of CO2 in the blood, causing an acidotic state.

A. Metabolic acidosis results from an accumulation of acids in the body or a loss of bicarbonate. Hypoventilation leading to respiratory acidosis does not directly cause metabolic acidosis.

C. Respiratory alkalosis occurs when there is excessive elimination of CO2 from the body, leading to decreased arterial carbon dioxide levels (hypocapnia) and an increase in pH. Shallow respirations and decreased respiratory rate are more consistent with hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis rather than hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.

D. Metabolic alkalosis results from excessive loss of acids or increased bicarbonate levels in the body. Hypoventilation leading to respiratory acidosis does not directly cause metabolic alkalosis.

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An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. What should the nurse plan to do?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a cardiac care unit is caring for a client with acute right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and whose respirations are shallow and 9/min. Which of the following acid-based imbalances should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. What should the nurse plan to do?

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