You previously cared for a 38-year-old woman who has a history of seizures after a traumatic emergency cesarean section. Today, you are working in the neurology clinic, and the patient comes in for a routine follow-up appointment. The patient says that because she has not had a seizure since she was in the hospital, she questions how long she will have to continue taking the phenytoin. Which is your best response?
This medication can be stopped after you are seizure-free for a 6-month period.
Only take the medication when you are under stress because that's when you are most likely to have a seizure.
This medication might need to be continued for the rest of your life.
Your seizures are cured only as long as you take the medication.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Stopping seizure medication such as phenytoin without medical advice can lead to life-threatening seizures. It is not recommended to stop after a set period of being seizure-free without consulting a healthcare provider.
Choice B reason: Phenytoin should not be taken only during periods of stress; it is intended to be used consistently to maintain therapeutic levels in the body.
Choice C reason: Phenytoin may need to be continued indefinitely, depending on the individual's condition and the doctor's recommendation. It is often used as a long-term treatment for seizure control.
Choice D reason: This statement is misleading; while phenytoin helps control seizures, it does not cure the underlying condition causing them.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood flow or hydration affecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine flow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Painful and red-tinged urination could be related to kidney stones but is not directly relevant to the preparation for an intravenous pyelogram.
Choice B reason: The end of the menstrual period is not typically relevant to the preparation for an intravenous pyelogram.
Choice C reason: Drinking fluids is generally encouraged but does not need to be reported unless it is restricted before the procedure.
Choice D reason: The client's allergy to shellfish is important to report because the contrast dye used in an intravenous pyelogram may contain iodine, which can cause a reaction in people with shellfish allergies.
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