Which of the following information should the nurse include when educating a client who has pulmonary edema as a result of a pre-existing cardiac
condition?
(Select All that Apply.)
Weight control if the client's BMI is greater than 35
Healthy lifestyle
Smoking cessation
Heart disease prevention
Glycemic control if the client is diabetic
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D,E
Choice A Reason:
Weight control if the client's BMI is greater than 35 is correct. Obesity is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can exacerbate symptoms of heart failure. Weight control, particularly if the client's BMI is greater than 35, is important for managing cardiac conditions such as heart failure and reducing the risk of pulmonary edema.
Choice B Reason:
Healthy lifestyle is correct. Adopting a healthy lifestyle, including regular exercise, balanced diet, adequate hydration, and stress management, is essential for managing cardiac conditions and reducing the risk of complications such as pulmonary edema.
Choice C Reason:
Smoking cessation is correct. Smoking is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can worsen heart failure symptoms. Smoking cessation is crucial for managing cardiac conditions and reducing the risk of pulmonary edema and other complications.
Choice D Reason:
Heart disease prevention is correct. Providing information about heart disease prevention strategies, such as maintaining a healthy diet, managing blood pressure and cholesterol levels, regular exercise, and regular medical check-ups, can help reduce the risk of exacerbations and complications in clients with pre-existing cardiac conditions.
Choice E Reason:
Glycemic control if the client is diabetic is correct. Diabetes is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can contribute to the development and progression of heart failure. Glycemic control, along with lifestyle modifications and medication management, is important for managing diabetes and reducing the risk of complications such as pulmonary edema.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Prothrombin time (PT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot is incorrect. While PT may be part of a comprehensive evaluation in some cases, it is not typically the initial diagnostic test performed for a TIA. A TIA is caused by a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain, often due to an embolus or transient blockage in a cerebral artery, rather than a primary disorder of blood clotting.
Choice B Reason:
Complete blood count (CBC) is incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is a common laboratory test that evaluates the cellular components of the blood, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While CBC can provide valuable information about hematological conditions such as anemia or thrombocytosis, it is not specific to diagnosing the cause of a TIA. TIA is primarily a vascular event related to transient ischemia in the brain rather than a disorder of blood cell counts.
Choice C Reason:
Computerized tomography angiography (CTA) is appropriate. CTA is a non-invasive imaging test that combines computed tomography (CT) scanning with contrast dye to visualize blood vessels throughout the body, including those in the brain. CTA can help identify any blockages, narrowing, or abnormalities in the blood vessels supplying the brain, which may be contributing to the TIA. It provides detailed images of the blood vessels' structure and can help guide further management and treatment decisions.
Choice D Reason:
Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is inappropriate. Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is an imaging test that provides detailed images of the heart and major blood vessels using sound waves. While TEE may be indicated in some cases of TIA to evaluate for potential cardiac sources of emboli (blood clots), such as atrial fibrillation or cardiac valve abnormalities, it is not typically the first-line diagnostic test performed in the emergency department setting for evaluating a TIA. Initial imaging studies such as CTA or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain are usually prioritized to assess for acute changes in cerebral blood flow and potential causes of the TIA.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.
Choice B Reason:
Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.
Choice C Reason:
Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Choice D Reason:
Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
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