A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. The client reports that, since the onset of the disease, there are times when their symptoms are active and then followed by a period with no symptoms. Which of the following types of multiple sclerosis does this pattern indicate?
Primary progressive multiple sclerosis
Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis
Clinically isolating syndrome
Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis
The Correct Answer is B
Primary progressive multiple sclerosis (PPMS) is false. This subtype of MS is characterized by a gradual worsening of symptoms from the onset of the disease, without distinct relapses or remissions. It typically leads to a progressive accumulation of disability over time, without periods of remission. The pattern described by the client, with alternating periods of active symptoms and symptom-free periods, does not align with the continuous progression seen in PPMS.
Choice B Reason:
Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS) is true. RRMS is characterized by distinct relapses, during which new symptoms may appear or existing symptoms may worsen, followed by periods of partial or complete recovery (remissions), during which the symptoms improve or may even disappear entirely. This pattern matches the description provided by the client, indicating RRMS as the likely subtype.
Choice C Reason:
Clinically isolating syndrome (CIS) is false. CIS refers to a single episode of neurological symptoms caused by inflammation or demyelination in the central nervous system, which may or may not progress to MS. However, CIS does not involve the characteristic pattern of relapses and remissions seen in RRMS.
Choice D Reason:
Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (SPMS) is false. SPMS is characterized by a gradual worsening of symptoms and disability over time, following an initial period of relapsing-remitting disease. It may or may not involve distinct relapses and remissions, depending on the individual's disease course. While SPMS can involve periods of symptom exacerbation, it typically lacks the clear pattern of relapses followed by remissions seen in RRMS.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Pleural cavity decompression via needle aspiration is inappropriate. Pleural cavity decompression via needle aspiration may be indicated in cases of tension pneumothorax, a potentially life-threatening condition in which air accumulates in the pleural space and compresses the lung. While it is an intervention rather than a diagnostic tool, it may be performed emergently if tension pneumothorax is suspected based on clinical findings.
Choice B Reason:
Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) is appropriate. FAST is a bedside ultrasound examination commonly used in trauma settings to rapidly assess for the presence of free fluid in the pericardial, pleural, and peritoneal spaces. It can help identify hemopericardium, hemothorax, or intra-abdominal hemorrhage, which may be indicative of thoracic injury.
Choice C Reason:
Chest x-ray is appropriate. Chest x-ray is a commonly used imaging modality for evaluating thoracic injuries. It can help visualize abnormalities such as rib fractures, pneumothorax, hemothorax, pulmonary contusions, or other traumatic injuries to the chest.
Choice D Reason:
Thoracentesis is appropriate. Thoracentesis is a procedure used to sample fluid from the pleural space for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. It may be indicated if there is a suspicion of pleural effusion or if fluid accumulation is seen on imaging studies such as chest x-ray or ultrasound.
Choice E Reason:
Ultrasound is appropriate. Ultrasound can be used to evaluate various aspects of thoracic injuries, including the presence of pneumothorax, hemothorax, or pleural effusion. It is often used as part of the FAST examination but can also be performed separately for more detailed assessment.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Client responds to name is incorrect. Responding to one's name is a positive sign indicating consciousness and orientation. It suggests that the client's level of consciousness is relatively intact.
Choice B Reason:
Eyes open to painful stimuli is correct. Opening the eyes in response to painful stimuli is a concerning sign, indicating a decrease in consciousness and potentially worsening neurological status. It suggests that the client's level of arousal is diminishing and may indicate a decline in condition.
Choice C Reason:
Client states day of the week is correct. Oriented behavior, such as knowing the day of the week, is a positive sign indicating intact cognition and orientation. It suggests that the client's mental status is relatively preserved.
Choice D Reason:
Client is confused is correct. Confusion is a concerning sign, indicating altered mental status and potentially worsening neurological function. It suggests that the client's cognition is impaired, which may be indicative of a decline in condition.
Choice E Reason:
Client mumbles inappropriate words is correct. Mumbling inappropriate words suggests disorientation and altered mental status, which are concerning signs indicating a decline in neurological function.
Choice F Reason:
Eyes do not open to name is incorrect. Failure to open the eyes in response to verbal stimuli, such as one's name, is a concerning sign indicating a decrease in consciousness and potentially worsening neurological status. It suggests that the client's level of arousal is diminished and may indicate a decline in condition.
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