A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for a client who has a spinal cord injury and spasm-induced incontinence. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate a prescription for?

Glatiramer acetate

Dulaglutide

Montelukast sodium

Oxybutynin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason:

Glatiramer acetate is incorrect because it is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis (MS) to reduce the frequency of relapses and delay disease progression. It is not indicated for spasm-induced incontinence.

Choice B Reason:

Dulaglutide is incorrect because it is a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving blood sugar control. It is not indicated for the treatment of spasm-induced incontinence.

Choice C Reason:

Montelukast sodium is incorrect because it is a leukotriene receptor antagonist primarily used to manage asthma and allergic rhinitis. It is not indicated for the treatment of spasm-induced incontinence.

Choice D Reason:

Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat overactive bladder and urinary incontinence, including spasm-induced incontinence that can occur in individuals with spinal cord injury. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the bladder, thereby reducing involuntary contractions that contribute to urinary urgency and incontinence.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

African American clients is appropriate. Research suggests that African Americans have a lower prevalence of MS compared to White Americans, but they tend to have more severe disease progression and higher disability rates when diagnosed with MS.

Choice B Reason:

White American clients: Individuals of European descent, including White Americans, have the highest prevalence of MS, particularly those of northern European ancestry. MS is more common in populations of northern European descent compared to other racial and ethnic groups.

Choice C Reason:

East Asian clients: East Asians, including individuals of Chinese, Japanese, and Korean descent, have historically had lower rates of MS compared to individuals of European descent. However, MS prevalence appears to be increasing in East Asian populations, possibly due to changes in lifestyle and environmental factors.

Choice D Reason:

Hispanic or Latino clients: Studies suggest that the prevalence of MS is lower in Hispanic/Latino populations compared to White Americans but higher than in African Americans. However, there is considerable variation in MS prevalence among different Hispanic/Latino subgroups.

Choice E Reason:

Navajo Indian clients: Native American populations, including Navajo Indians, have been reported to have a lower prevalence of MS compared to individuals of European descent. However, limited data are available on MS prevalence and incidence in specific Native American tribes, and more research is needed to fully understand the disease burden in these populations.

A. The client should maintain systolic BP between 120 and 129 mm Hg. B. The client should maintain systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg. C. The client should maintain systolic BP between 141 and 145 mm Hg. D. The client should maintain systolic BP between 130 and 135 mm Hg.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 120 and 129 mm Hg. This option aligns with current guidelines for blood pressure management following a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Tight blood pressure control is recommended to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events, such as stroke. Maintaining systolic blood pressure (SBP) between 120 and 129 mm Hg has been associated with significant risk reduction in stroke recurrence compared to higher blood pressure targets. Therefore, this option reflects the recommended approach for blood pressure management in individuals with a history of TIA.

Choice B Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg: This option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 136 to 140 mm Hg may pose an increased risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events compared to tighter blood pressure control.

Choice C Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 141 and 145 mm Hg. Similarly, this option proposes a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 141 to 145 mm Hg may not provide adequate protection against stroke recurrence compared to tighter blood pressure control.

Choice D Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 130 and 135 mm Hg. While this option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is closer to the recommended target compared to options B and C, it still falls slightly above the optimal range for blood pressure management following a TIA. Tighter blood pressure control, ideally below 130 mm Hg, is typically preferred to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events.

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A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for a client who has a spinal cord injury and spasm-induced incontinence. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate a prescription for?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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