A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Hypoxemia due to dead space
Impaired carbon dioxide elimination due to shunting
Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure due to ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch
Decreased pulmonary compliance due to stiffness
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Hypoxemia due to dead space is not appropriate. Dead space refers to areas of the lung where ventilation occurs but no perfusion takes place. In ARDS, hypoxemia typically occurs due to ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch and shunting rather than dead space.
Choice B Reason:
Impaired carbon dioxide elimination due to shunting is not appropriate. Shunting occurs when blood bypasses ventilated alveoli, leading to inadequate gas exchange. In ARDS, shunting contributes to hypoxemia, but it doesn't directly impair carbon dioxide elimination.
Choice C Reason:
Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure due to ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch is incorrect. V/Q mismatch occurs when ventilation and perfusion are mismatched in different areas of the lung. This leads to areas of low ventilation (dead space) and areas of low perfusion (shunting). V/Q mismatch contributes to hypoxemia in ARDS but does not typically lead to decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
Choice D Reason:
Decreased pulmonary compliance due to stiffness is correct. This is a characteristic feature of ARDS. The inflammation and damage to the alveoli cause them to become stiff, reducing pulmonary compliance and impairing lung expansion during ventilation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Muscle strength is correct. Assessing muscle strength is essential to determine if there are any neurological deficits or weakness that could indicate a neurological condition or injury. Sudden falls can be indicative of various neurological issues, such as stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Assessing muscle strength helps identify any motor impairments or weakness that could contribute to the fall.
Choice B Reason:
Facial symmetry is correct. Assessing facial symmetry is crucial to identify any signs of facial droop, which could indicate a neurological deficit such as a stroke or Bell's palsy. Facial asymmetry may suggest damage to the facial nerve or other neurological issues.
Choice C Reason:
Peripheral pulses is incorrect. While assessing peripheral pulses is important for evaluating circulation, it may not be the priority assessment in this scenario where the client has suddenly fallen and may be experiencing neurological symptoms. Neurological deficits, such as weakness or changes in facial symmetry, vision, or speech, are more indicative of acute neurological issues like stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), which require immediate attention and intervention. In emergency situations, prioritizing assessments related to potential life-threatening conditions such as neurological deficits takes precedence over assessing peripheral pulses.
Choice D Reason:
Vision changes is correct. Assessing for vision changes is important to identify any visual disturbances or deficits that could contribute to falls or indicate underlying neurological issues such as a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Visual disturbances may include blurriness, double vision, or loss of vision in one or both eyes.
Choice E Reason:
Aphasia is incorrect. Assessing for aphasia, which is the inability to understand or express speech, is essential to identify any language deficits that could indicate a neurological condition such as a stroke. Aphasia may present as difficulty speaking, understanding language, or both.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Sedatives do not impact the risk of obstructive sleep apnea: This statement is incorrect. Sedatives, particularly those that cause muscle relaxation or depress the central nervous system, can exacerbate obstructive sleep apnea by further relaxing the muscles of the upper airway, leading to increased airway collapse during sleep.
Choice B Reason:
CPAP compliance enhances quality of sleep is correct. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy is a common treatment for obstructive sleep apnea. Compliance with CPAP therapy, meaning consistent and proper use of the CPAP device during sleep, is essential for effectively managing sleep apnea and improving sleep quality.
Choice C Reason:
Alcohol does not affect the risk of obstructive sleep apnea. This statement is incorrect. Alcohol consumption can worsen obstructive sleep apnea by promoting muscle relaxation in the upper airway, leading to increased airway collapse and more frequent episodes of apnea during sleep.
Choice D Reason:
Obesity increases the risk of obstructive sleep apnea. This statement is correct. Obesity is a significant risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea. Excess fat tissue around the neck can increase the likelihood of airway obstruction during sleep, contributing to the development or worsening of sleep apnea.
Choice E Reason:
Positional therapy enhances client comfort is correct. Positional therapy involves strategies to encourage sleeping in positions that minimize the severity of obstructive sleep apnea, particularly for individuals with positional OSA (where apnea events are primarily or significantly worse when sleeping in specific positions, such as supine). This statement is correct.
Choice F Reason:
Smoking increases the risk of obstructive sleep apnea: This statement is correct. Smoking can increase the risk of obstructive sleep apnea due to its effects on upper airway inflammation and respiratory function. Smoking cessation can be beneficial in managing sleep apnea and improving overall health.
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