Which statement provides the best rationale for why a nurse should closely monitor a severely depressed client during antidepressant therapy?
"As depression lifts, physical energy becomes available to carry out suicide."
"Suicide may be precipitated by a variety of internal and external events."
"Suicidal clients have difficulty using social supports."
"Suicide is an impulsive act that has no warning."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "As depression lifts, physical energy becomes available to carry out suicide." This statement highlights a critical consideration in the care of severely depressed clients. When a client's depression starts to improve due to antidepressant therapy, there may be a period where they have increased energy but have not yet gained full relief from their depressive thoughts. This can potentially increase the risk of carrying out suicidal thoughts or plans.
B. "Suicide may be precipitated by a variety of internal and external events." While this statement is true, it does not specifically address the importance of monitoring a client during antidepressant therapy.
C. "Suicidal clients have difficulty using social supports." This statement acknowledges a potential challenge for clients who are experiencing suicidal thoughts, but it does not directly relate to the need for close monitoring during antidepressant therapy.
D. "Suicide is an impulsive act that has no warning." This statement is not entirely accurate. While some suicides can be impulsive, many individuals give warning signs or exhibit changes in behavior before attempting suicide.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "He may begin to try to cover recognition of his memory loss by creating events." As
dementia progresses, individuals may experience confabulation, which involves creating false memories to compensate for memory loss. This is a common symptom seen in the middle stages of dementia.
B. "He may have difficulty in a motor skill such as walking." While motor skills may be affected in the later stages of dementia, it is not typically one of the early signs.
C. "The inability to communicate with speech comes immediately after the early signs." This statement is not accurate. Communication difficulties may occur in later stages, but it is not an immediate progression from early signs.
D. "He may not recognize you and other people who have been in his life." This symptom, known as agnosia, may occur in later stages of dementia, but it is not one of the early signs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Naltrexone does not primarily target withdrawal symptoms. It works by blocking the pleasurable effects of alcohol, reducing the reinforcement that leads to craving.
B) Correct. Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that reduces the craving for alcohol. It does this by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain, which are involved in the pleasurable effects of
alcohol consumption.
C) Incorrect. Naltrexone is not primarily used to manage anxiety. Its main purpose is to help individuals reduce or stop their alcohol intake.
D) Incorrect. Naltrexone is not primarily used to treat depressive symptoms. Its focus is on reducing alcohol cravings.
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