A 28-year old male admitted with catatonic schizophrenia has been mute and motionless for several days while at home prior to admission. He still appears stuporous in the hospital. Which nursing intervention would be an initial priority?
Orienting the client to the unit
Reinforcing reality with the client
Establishing a nonthreatening relationship
Assessing the client for physical problems
The Correct Answer is D
A. Orienting the client to the unit While orientation is important, the client's prolonged
immobility and stupor necessitate a physical assessment first to ensure there are no underlying medical issues contributing to this state.
B. Reinforcing reality with the client The client's catatonic state may make it difficult to effectively communicate or engage in reality orientation at this point. Addressing potential physical issues is the initial priority.
C. Establishing a nonthreatening relationship Building a therapeutic relationship is crucial, but given the client's current state, assessing for physical problems takes precedence.
D. Assessing the client for physical problems The client's prolonged catatonic state requires an
immediate physical assessment to rule out any underlying medical conditions contributing to his condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect. While understanding if the client is experiencing a relapse is important, knowing the timing of the last drink is crucial for assessing the level of intoxication.
B) Correct. Knowing the time of the last drink helps the nurse gauge the current level of alcohol in the client's system, which is crucial in assessing and managing alcohol intoxication.
C) Incorrect. While understanding the duration of the client's problem with alcohol is important, it is not the most immediate concern when the client is showing symptoms of intoxication.
D) Incorrect. Asking about liver problems is relevant but not the first priority when the client is exhibiting signs of alcohol intoxication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Wernicke encephalopathy is caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency, but it is not characterized by thiamine deficiency itself.
B. Wernicke encephalopathy is characterized by lesions in the hypothalamus and mammillary bodies in the brain.
C. While cognitive impairment may be present, this is not the primary characteristic of Wernicke encephalopathy.
D. Double vision and rapid eye movement are symptoms of Wernicke encephalopathy, but they are not the irreversible complication itself.
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