A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder has recently started taking lamotrigine as part of their medication regimen. Which of the following would be an essential teaching point to include regarding the medication?
Correct. Lamotrigine is associated with a risk of a severe skin reaction called Stevens Johnson syndrome. If a client experiences any rash while taking lamotrigine, it is crucial to notify a
healthcare provider immediately.
Incorrect. While it is important for individuals of childbearing age to discuss pregnancy plans and contraceptive methods with their healthcare provider, it is not the primary teaching point specific to lamotrigine.
medications, it is not a primary concern with lamotrigine. The main concern is the potential for a serious rash.
The Correct Answer is C
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring vital signs and neurological status frequently is the priority intervention for the client because it can detect changes in the client's condition, such as increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or infection, that require immediate action.
Choice B reason: Maintaining strict bed rest to minimize cerebral blood flow is not the priority intervention for the client because it can increase the risk of complications such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or pneumoniA. The client should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees to reduce intracranial pressure and facilitate drainagE.
Choice C reason: Administering anticoagulant medications as prescribed is not the priority intervention for the client because it can worsen the bleeding and increase the risk of hemorrhagic transformation. Anticoagulants are contraindicated for clients who have hemorrhagic stroke, which is caused by rupture of a blood vessel in the brain.
Choice D reason: Assisting the client with active range of motion exercises is not the priority intervention for the client because it can cause fatigue, pain, or injury to the affected limbs. The client should be assisted with passive range of motion exercises to prevent contractures and maintain joint mobility.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A negative-pressure isolation room is not appropriate for this client because it is used for clients who have airborne infections that can spread through small droplets that remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. Scabies is a skin infection that is spread by direct contact with infested skin or clothinG.
Choice B reason: A positive-pressure isolation room is not appropriate for this client because it is used for clients who have compromised immune systems and need protection from environmental contaminants, such as bone marrow transplant recipients, burn victims, or organ transplant recipients. Scabies is not caused by environmental contaminants, but by parasitic mites that burrow under the skin.
Choice C reason: A private room is appropriate for this client because it prevents contact transmission of scabies to other clients or stafF. The client should also have dedicated equipment and linens, and wear gloves and gown when leaving the room. The room should be thoroughly cleaned and disinfected after the client's dischargE.
Choice D reason: A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis is not appropriate for this client because it increases the risk of cross-contamination between the two clients. Pediculosis capitis is a head lice infestation that can also be spread by direct contact with infested hair or personal items.
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