A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder has recently started taking lamotrigine as part of their medication regimen. Which of the following would be an essential teaching point to include regarding the medication?
Correct. Lamotrigine is associated with a risk of a severe skin reaction called Stevens Johnson syndrome. If a client experiences any rash while taking lamotrigine, it is crucial to notify a
healthcare provider immediately.
Incorrect. While it is important for individuals of childbearing age to discuss pregnancy plans and contraceptive methods with their healthcare provider, it is not the primary teaching point specific to lamotrigine.
medications, it is not a primary concern with lamotrigine. The main concern is the potential for a serious rash.
The Correct Answer is C
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypertension is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure because it is part of the Cushing's triad, which is a set of signs that indicate increased intracranial pressure and impaired cerebral perfusion. The other signs of Cushing's triad are bradycardia and irregular respirations.
Choice B reason: Tinnitus is not a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure because it is a symptom of hearing loss, ear infection, or ear damage, not increased intracranial pressurE. Tinnitus is a ringing, buzzing, or hissing sound in the ears that can be caused by various factors such as exposure to loud noise, aging, or medication side effects.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is not a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure because it is a sign of decreased blood pressure, not increased intracranial pressurE. Hypotension can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, or shock.
Choice D reason: Tachycardia is not a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure because it is a sign of increased heart rate, not increased intracranial pressurE. Tachycardia can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, fever, or pain.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Limiting fluid intake to prevent incontinence is not the highest priority intervention for this client because it can cause dehydration, urinary tract infections, or kidney stones, which can worsen the client's condition and quality of lifE. The client should be encouraged to drink adequate fluids and empty their bladder regularly.
Choice B reason: Providing regular perineal care to prevent skin breakdown is the highest priority intervention for this client because it can prevent infection, irritation, and ulceration of the skin around the genital and anal areas, which can cause pain, discomfort, and complications. The client should be kept clean and dry, and use barrier creams or pads as needeD.
Choice C reason: Administering hypotonic IV fluids is not an intervention for this client because it can cause fluid overload, hyponatremia, or cerebral edema, which can endanger the client's health and safety. The client does not need IV fluids unless they are dehydrated or have other indications.
Choice D reason: Teaching Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor is not an intervention for this client because it can be ineffective or harmful for clients with reflex incontinence, which is caused by loss of voluntary control over bladder contractions due to spinal cord injury. The client may benefit from other interventions such as bladder training, medication, or surgery.
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