A client with schizophrenia has received standard antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but the client remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated.
To address these symptoms, the nurse might expect the psychiatrist to prescribe which medication?
Haloperidol
Olanzapine
Diphenhydramine
Chlorpromazine
The Correct Answer is B
A. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This response does not directly address the client's concern and may be perceived as dismissive.
B. This response does not provide a clear explanation for the locked door and may not effectively address the client's agitation.
C. This response provides a clear and honest explanation for the locked door, ensuring the client's safety, which is the priority.
D. This response acknowledges the situation but does not provide a clear explanation for the locked door.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland and is not directly implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia.
B) Incorrect. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells and is not directly implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia.
C) Correct. Glutamate, an excitatory neurotransmitter, has been implicated in the development of schizophrenia. Abnormalities in glutamate signaling have been identified in individuals with schizophrenia.
D) Incorrect. While serotonin abnormalities have been associated with mood disorders such as depression, they are not considered a primary factor in the etiology of schizophrenia.
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