A client with schizophrenia has received standard antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but the client remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated.

To address these symptoms, the nurse might expect the psychiatrist to prescribe which medication?

Haloperidol

Olanzapine

Diphenhydramine

Chlorpromazine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B.   Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C.   Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D.   Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Allowing the client to continue at his own pace may not effectively address the issue of circumstantiality and could lead to prolonged, tangential conversations.

B) Correct. Redirecting the conversation can help the client refocus and stay on topic, which can be particularly helpful for someone experiencing circumstantiality.

C) Incorrect. Stopping the client and telling him how his conversation sounds to others may be perceived as confrontational and could potentially be distressing for the client.

D) Incorrect. Reflecting is a useful communication technique, but it may not be the most effective intervention for addressing circumstantiality in this scenario.

A. Haloperidol B. Olanzapine C. Diphenhydramine D. Chlorpromazine

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse receives report on a male client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder and is informed that the client's verbal communication includes "circumstantiality." What intervention is most therapeutic when caring for this client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions of persecution. How would the client express feeling persecuted?

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has schizophrenia and a new prescription for risperidone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A physician has prescribed an antidepressant medication for a 15yearold client. Which statement would be appropriate for inclusion in medication teaching?

The nurse is caring for a client with poor self-esteem. What intervention would be important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia following a recent suicide attempt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Which of the following is the most therapeutic response by the nurse when a client states, "I no longer need my medication since I do not hear voices"?

The mother of a 20yearold woman recently diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia asks the nurse what causes schizophrenia. The nurse recognizes which of the following are implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia?

What intervention is a priority when the client is experiencing auditory hallucinations?