A nurse suspects the client is experiencing delirium. Which of the following assessment findings would support the nurse's suspicion?
A decreased level of consciousness with intermittent periods of hypervigilance.
A slow onset of confusion and agitation.
A decrease in the client's output and vital signs.
The symptoms have lasted longer than a month.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Delirium is characterized by a fluctuating level of consciousness, which can include periods of hypervigilance.
B. A slow onset of confusion and agitation is more characteristic of dementia rather than delirium.
C. A decrease in output and vital signs may indicate a different condition, but it is not specific to delirium.
D. Delirium is characterized by an acute onset and is typically short-lived, usually lasting days to weeks. Symptoms lasting longer than a month would suggest a different diagnosis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland and is not directly implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia.
B) Incorrect. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells and is not directly implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia.
C) Correct. Glutamate, an excitatory neurotransmitter, has been implicated in the development of schizophrenia. Abnormalities in glutamate signaling have been identified in individuals with schizophrenia.
D) Incorrect. While serotonin abnormalities have been associated with mood disorders such as depression, they are not considered a primary factor in the etiology of schizophrenia.
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