The mother of a 20yearold woman recently diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia asks the nurse what causes schizophrenia. The nurse recognizes which of the following are implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia?
Thyroxine
Erythropoietin
Glutamate
Serotonin
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland and is not directly implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia.
B) Incorrect. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells and is not directly implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia.
C) Correct. Glutamate, an excitatory neurotransmitter, has been implicated in the development of schizophrenia. Abnormalities in glutamate signaling have been identified in individuals with schizophrenia.
D) Incorrect. While serotonin abnormalities have been associated with mood disorders such as depression, they are not considered a primary factor in the etiology of schizophrenia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect. While maintaining proper nutrition is important, this statement is not directly related to the use of risperidone.
B) Correct. Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, can be associated with metabolic side effects, including hypertension. Therefore, monitoring blood pressure is important.
C) Incorrect. While regular monitoring of blood parameters may be necessary for some medications, it is not a specific requirement for risperidone.
D) Incorrect. While weight changes can occur with risperidone, there is no specific indication to increase caloric intake in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
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