The spouse of a client diagnosed recently with a mood disorder calls the nurse therapist to report a change in the client's mood. The spouse states, "My spouse is clearly in a better mood than usual. I would say my spouse seems mildly elated. They are functioning fine at work and home. My spouse is energetic, up and doing things at 500 a.m. and really confident again. It seems fantastic, but unusual. Is this something to worry about?"
Which potential response by the nurse accurately assesses the situation?
"It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know."
"I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow."
"Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping."
"The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Delirium is characterized by a fluctuating level of consciousness, which can include periods of hypervigilance.
B. A slow onset of confusion and agitation is more characteristic of dementia rather than delirium.
C. A decrease in output and vital signs may indicate a different condition, but it is not specific to delirium.
D. Delirium is characterized by an acute onset and is typically short-lived, usually lasting days to weeks. Symptoms lasting longer than a month would suggest a different diagnosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While medication review may be necessary, the immediate concern is the client's current symptoms and potential need for urgent intervention.
B. Encouraging the client to eat more slowly does not address the urgent nature of the client's symptoms.
C. "Assessment security" is not a standard term or intervention. It does not provide specific guidance for addressing the client's symptoms.
D. Given the client's complaints of swelling and tightness, along with difficulty swallowing, further assessment is needed to determine the cause. This information should be reported to the provider promptly.
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