A physician has prescribed an antidepressant medication for a 15yearold client. Which statement would be appropriate for inclusion in medication teaching?
"There may be an increased risk of socialization while taking this drug."
"Clients may lose all inhibitions while on this drug."
"There may be an increased risk of suicide while taking this drug."
"If you miss a dose of this drug, double the dose the next time you take it."
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect. This statement does not provide relevant information about the medication or potential risks.
B) Incorrect. This statement is not accurate and may cause unnecessary concern or confusion for the client.
C) Correct. Adolescents and young adults prescribed with antidepressant medications should be informed about the potential increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behaviors, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is important for the client's safety and allows for appropriate monitoring.
D) Incorrect. Doubling the dose if a dose is missed is not a safe or appropriate practice. The client should be instructed on what to do if they miss a dose according to their healthcare provider's instructions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Wernicke encephalopathy is caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency, but it is not characterized by thiamine deficiency itself.
B. Wernicke encephalopathy is characterized by lesions in the hypothalamus and mammillary bodies in the brain.
C. While cognitive impairment may be present, this is not the primary characteristic of Wernicke encephalopathy.
D. Double vision and rapid eye movement are symptoms of Wernicke encephalopathy, but they are not the irreversible complication itself.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.
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