The nurse is obtaining the mental health history of a newly admitted client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The client's family reports the client is hearing voices and cannot stay focused on the topic of a discussion. Which thought disturbance is the client demonstrating?
Delusions of reference
Tangentiality
Neologism
Loose associations
The Correct Answer is D
A) Incorrect. Delusions of reference involve a belief that everyday events, objects, or other people have a particular and unusual significance. This is not described in the scenario.
B) Incorrect. Tangentiality is a thought disorder where the individual goes off on tangents and never returns to the original point or idea. This is not described in the scenario.
C) Incorrect. Neologism refers to the creation of new words or phrases that have meaning only to the person using them. This is not described in the scenario.
D) Correct. Loose associations are characterized by a disruption in the logical progression of thought, where thoughts become disorganized and may seem unrelated or loosely connected.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term neuroleptic (antipsychotic) treatment. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, particularly of the face and tongue. This condition is more commonly seen in clients who have been on neuroleptics for extended periods.
B) Incorrect. Discontinuing neuroleptic treatment may lead to withdrawal symptoms or symptom recurrence, but it does not directly increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia.
C) Incorrect. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a different side effect associated with neuroleptic medications, characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity.
D) Incorrect. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a different class of medications and are not associated with the development of tardive dyskinesia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.
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