What client population is at risk of developing tardive dyskinesia?

Clients who have received long-term neuroleptic treatment.

Clients who have discontinued their neuroleptic treatment.

Clients who have experienced neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS).

Clients who have received monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIS).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Correct. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term neuroleptic (antipsychotic) treatment. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, particularly of the face and tongue. This condition is more commonly seen in clients who have been on neuroleptics for extended periods.

B) Incorrect. Discontinuing neuroleptic treatment may lead to withdrawal symptoms or symptom recurrence, but it does not directly increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia.

C) Incorrect. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a different side effect associated with neuroleptic medications, characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity.

D) Incorrect. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a different class of medications and are not associated with the development of tardive dyskinesia.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Correct. Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by a combination of symptoms of schizophrenia (such as delusions and hallucinations) and mood disorders (such as depression or mania).

B) Incorrect. Waxy flexibility and catatonic excitement are more commonly associated with catatonic schizophrenia, not schizoaffective disorder.

C) Incorrect. Bizarre mannerisms and hostility may be seen in various psychiatric disorders but are not specific to schizoaffective disorder.

D) Incorrect. While agitation and ideas of reference can occur in schizoaffective disorder, they are not the defining features of this diagnosis.

A. The client has increasing aggression. B. The client has elevated blood pressure. C. The client has complaints of dizziness. D. The client has extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Increasing aggression may be an indication for a PRN medication, but benztropine specifically targets extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
B. Elevated blood pressure is not a direct indication for benztropine; it is used to address EPS.

C. Complaints of dizziness may not be directly related to EPS, which is the target of benztropine.
D. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol.

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What client population is at risk of developing tardive dyskinesia?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A newly admitted client has a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse would expect to find which of the following symptoms?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Benztropine is ordered as needed (PRN) for a client taking haloperidol after being diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. Which of the following assessments by the nurse would indicate a need for this medication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which of the following is the most therapeutic response by the nurse when a client states, "I no longer need my medication since I do not hear voices"?

The client is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following activities will be included in the plan of care?

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Which nursing documentation entry accurately describes a client's use of confabulation?

A nurse in the emergency department is implementing a plan of care for an older adult client who is experiencing delirium tremens. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is considering cognitive behavioral therapy. The client asks the nurse how this therapy would help alleviate depressive thoughts. What is the best response by the nurse?

A client is admitted to the emergency department after using ecstasy. The nurse identifies this drug as belonging to what class?

When a client diagnosed with schizophrenia was discharged 6 months ago, haloperidol was prescribed. The client now says, "I stopped taking those pills. They made me feel like a robot." What are common side effects the nurse should validate with the client?