A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder is in a manic state, rushing about the unit, and talking regularly with a flight of ideas. What is the most therapeutic intervention?
Have the client go to his room until calm.
Politely ask the client to stop talking.
Speak slowly and in a quiet voice to help the client focus.
Encourage the client to talk more so you can determine what he is thinking.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect. Isolating the client in his room may escalate the situation or make the client feel isolated and misunderstood.
B) Incorrect. Asking the client to stop talking may be perceived as confrontational and could potentially agitate the client further.
C) Correct. Speaking slowly and in a quiet voice can help the client focus and may reduce the flight of ideas. This calm approach can be grounding for the client.
D) Incorrect. Encouraging the client to talk more may exacerbate the flight of ideas and the manic state.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct. These symptoms are indicative of opioid withdrawal. Opioid withdrawal symptoms include sweating (diaphoresis), goosebumps (piloerection), tremors, irritability, insomnia, and gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and vomiting.
B) Incorrect. These symptoms are more indicative of withdrawal from substances like alcohol or benzodiazepines, rather than opioids.
C) Incorrect. These symptoms are not specific to opioid withdrawal and may be seen in various conditions.
D) Incorrect. This cluster of symptoms is not characteristic of opioid withdrawal.
Correct Answer is ["10"]
Explanation
Dose (mL) = Desired dose (mg) / Available dose (mg/mL) Plugging in the values from the question, we get:
Dose (mL) = 80 mg / (40 mg / 5 mL) Simplifying the fraction, we get:
Dose (mL) = 80 mg / 8 mg/mL Dividing both sides by 8, we get:
Dose (mL) = 10 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 10 mL of fluoxetine per dose.
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