A client has been admitted to a psychiatric mental health facility in a manic state. The client's spouse accompanies the client to the facility and informs the nurse that the client has been displaying manic symptoms for the past 2 weeks. The spouse reports that the client has not slept for the past 2 days, and that the client has not eaten anything for at least 3 days.
Which would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
Ineffective health maintenance
Risk for other-directed violence
Risk for imbalanced nutrition
Risk for suicide
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect. While the client's sleep disturbance and lack of selfcare may contribute to
ineffective health maintenance, the more immediate concern is addressing the risk of imbalanced nutrition.
B) Incorrect. While clients in a manic state may exhibit hyperactivity and impulsivity, there is no indication in the scenario that the client poses an immediate risk for other-directed violence.
C) Correct. The client's reported lack of sleep and refusal to eat for an extended period raises concerns about nutritional deficits and dehydration. This is the most immediate and pressing issue to address.
D) Incorrect. While the client's manic state may increase the risk of impulsive behavior, there is no specific indication in the scenario that the client is at immediate risk for suicide.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Isolating the client in his room may escalate the situation or make the client feel isolated and misunderstood.
B) Incorrect. Asking the client to stop talking may be perceived as confrontational and could potentially agitate the client further.
C) Correct. Speaking slowly and in a quiet voice can help the client focus and may reduce the flight of ideas. This calm approach can be grounding for the client.
D) Incorrect. Encouraging the client to talk more may exacerbate the flight of ideas and the manic state.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Reverse isolation is not indicated in this situation. The client's symptoms are likely due to a side effect of the medication, not an infectious process.
B) Incorrect. While it may be necessary to withhold the next dose of medication, the client's symptoms require more immediate attention.
C) Incorrect. The client's symptoms are indicative of a serious adverse reaction, and dietary changes would not address the issue.
D) Correct. The client's symptoms, including severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, drooling, diaphoresis, and elevated vital signs, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone.
The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately for further guidance and intervention.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.