A client has been admitted to a psychiatric mental health facility in a manic state. The client's spouse accompanies the client to the facility and informs the nurse that the client has been displaying manic symptoms for the past 2 weeks. The spouse reports that the client has not slept for the past 2 days, and that the client has not eaten anything for at least 3 days.
Which would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
Ineffective health maintenance
Risk for other-directed violence
Risk for imbalanced nutrition
Risk for suicide
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect. While the client's sleep disturbance and lack of selfcare may contribute to
ineffective health maintenance, the more immediate concern is addressing the risk of imbalanced nutrition.
B) Incorrect. While clients in a manic state may exhibit hyperactivity and impulsivity, there is no indication in the scenario that the client poses an immediate risk for other-directed violence.
C) Correct. The client's reported lack of sleep and refusal to eat for an extended period raises concerns about nutritional deficits and dehydration. This is the most immediate and pressing issue to address.
D) Incorrect. While the client's manic state may increase the risk of impulsive behavior, there is no specific indication in the scenario that the client is at immediate risk for suicide.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Placing metal utensils on the client's meal tray may pose a safety risk, especially considering the recent suicide attempt.
B) Incorrect. Assigning the client to a private room may be beneficial for privacy, but the more immediate concern is ensuring the safety of the client by inspecting personal belongings.
C) Correct. Inspecting the client's personal belongings is crucial to remove any potentially harmful items that the client may use to harm themselves.
D) Incorrect. Tucking bedcovers over the client's hands and arms is not a specific intervention related to the recent suicide attempt.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct. Haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, commonly causes side effects like sedation (drowsiness) and extrapyramidal symptoms, including muscle stiffness.
B) Incorrect. Sweating, nausea, and diarrhea are not typically associated with haloperidol.
C) Incorrect. Mild fever, sore throat, and skin rash are not common side effects of haloperidol.
D) Incorrect. Headache, watery eyes, and runny nose are not common side effects of haloperidol.
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