A client has been admitted to a psychiatric mental health facility in a manic state. The client's spouse accompanies the client to the facility and informs the nurse that the client has been displaying manic symptoms for the past 2 weeks. The spouse reports that the client has not slept for the past 2 days, and that the client has not eaten anything for at least 3 days.
Which would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
Ineffective health maintenance
Risk for other-directed violence
Risk for imbalanced nutrition
Risk for suicide
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect. While the client's sleep disturbance and lack of selfcare may contribute to
ineffective health maintenance, the more immediate concern is addressing the risk of imbalanced nutrition.
B) Incorrect. While clients in a manic state may exhibit hyperactivity and impulsivity, there is no indication in the scenario that the client poses an immediate risk for other-directed violence.
C) Correct. The client's reported lack of sleep and refusal to eat for an extended period raises concerns about nutritional deficits and dehydration. This is the most immediate and pressing issue to address.
D) Incorrect. While the client's manic state may increase the risk of impulsive behavior, there is no specific indication in the scenario that the client is at immediate risk for suicide.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term neuroleptic (antipsychotic) treatment. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, particularly of the face and tongue. This condition is more commonly seen in clients who have been on neuroleptics for extended periods.
B) Incorrect. Discontinuing neuroleptic treatment may lead to withdrawal symptoms or symptom recurrence, but it does not directly increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia.
C) Incorrect. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a different side effect associated with neuroleptic medications, characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity.
D) Incorrect. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a different class of medications and are not associated with the development of tardive dyskinesia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Loss of appetite can be a symptom of PMDD, but it is not the primary manifestation.
B. Insomnia can be a symptom of PMDD, but it is not the primary manifestation.
C. Emotional lability, or rapid and intense mood swings, is a primary manifestation of PMDD.
D. Anxiety can be a symptom of PMDD, but it is not the primary manifestation.
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