Which statement best describes a subdural hematoma?
Bleeding occurs between the dura and the skull.
Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly.
Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum.
The hematoma commonly occurs in the pretemporal region.
The Correct Answer is A
A subdural hematoma is a type of intracranial bleeding that occurs between the dura mater (the
outermost layer of the meninges) and the skull. The dura mater is a tough membrane that covers
and protects the brain. When a subdural hematoma occurs, blood collects between the dura mater
and the skull, resulting in increased pressure on the brain.
Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly in (Option B) is incorrect because
while bleeding in a subdural hematoma can be arterial, it can also be venous. The rate of bleeding
and brain compression can vary depending on the size and severity of the hematoma.
Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum in (Option C) is incorrect because the bleeding
in a subdural hematoma does not occur between the dura and the cerebrum (the largest part of the
brain). It specifically occurs between the dura and the skull.
The hematoma commonly occurs in the pretemporal region in (Option D) is incorrect because the
location of a subdural hematoma can vary. While pretemporal region is a possible location, subdural
hematomas can occur in different areas of the brain, depending on the site of injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Juvenile arthritis should be suspected in a child who exhibits joint swelling and pain lasting
longer than 6 weeks. Juvenile arthritis refers to a group of chronic inflammatory conditions
that affect the joints in children and adolescents. Persistent joint swelling and pain are
common symptoms of juvenile arthritis and are often accompanied by other signs such as
morning stiffness, limited range of motion, and joint warmth.
, frequent fractures in (option A) is not correct because it, is not typically associated with
juvenile arthritis. Fractures are more commonly associated with conditions affecting bone
strength, such as osteoporosis or certain genetic disorders.
lurching and abnormal gait with limited abduction in (option A) is not correct because it,
may be seen in certain musculoskeletal conditions or hip joint abnormalities, but it is not
specific to juvenile arthritis.
increased joint mobility in (option D) is incorrect because it, is not typically associated with
juvenile arthritis. In fact, joint stiffness and limited range of motion are more characteristic of
this condition.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, also known as Perthes disease, is a childhood condition that affects the hip joint. It occurs due to a disruption in the blood supply to the femoral head (epiphysis), which can lead to bone death (avascular necrosis) and subsequent deformity of the femoral head.
It is essential for parents to understand that Legg-Calve-Perthes disease is not an acute illness that lasts for a short duration (Option A). It is a chronic condition that typically progresses over a period of months or years.
stating that it is caused by a virus, in (option C) is incorrect. The exact cause of Legg-Calve- Perthes disease is not fully understood, but it is not caused by a viral infection. It is believed to be related to multifactorial factors, including genetic and vascular factors.
stating that it primarily affects adults, in (option D) is incorrect. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease predominantly affects children, typically between the ages of 4 and 8 years old, during the period of rapid growth.
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