Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn who is developing sepsis? Select one:

Hyperglycemia and increased appetite.

Increased urinary output and spitting up mucous.

Wakefulness and ruddy appearance.

Temperature instability and lethargy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: Hyperglycemia and increased appetite. This is an incorrect answer that describes symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not sepsis. Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder where the body cannot produce or use insulin eﬀectively, which results in high blood glucose levels and impaired glucose tolerance. Diabetes mellitus can aﬀect newborns if the mother has pre-existing or gestational diabetes, which can cause macrosomia, hypoglycemia, or congenital anomalies.

Choice B Reason: Increased urinary output and spitting up mucous. This is an incorrect answer that indicates normal or benign conditions, not sepsis. Increased urinary output is a normal finding in newborns, as they eliminate the excess ﬂuid that was accumulated during pregnancy. Spitting up mucous is a common occurrence in newborns, as they clear their airways of amniotic ﬂuid or secretions.

Choice C Reason: Wakefulness and ruddy appearance. This is an incorrect answer that suggests healthy or normal characteristics, not sepsis. Wakefulness is a sign of alertness and responsiveness in newborns, which reﬂects their neurological development and adaptation. Ruddy appearance is a reddish color of the skin that is normal in newborns, especially in term or post-term infants, which indicates adequate oxygenation and hemoglobin levels.

Choice D Reason: Temperature instability and lethargy. This is because temperature instability and lethargy are common signs of sepsis in newborns, which indicate systemic infection and inﬂammation. Sepsis is a life-threatening condition where the body's response to infection causes tissue damage, organ failure, or death. Sepsis can occur in newborns due to maternal, fetal, or neonatal factors, such as chorioamnionitis, premature rupture of membranes, prolonged labor, invasive procedures, or bacterial colonization.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Assisting with the delivery of the placenta and ensuring that the fundus is contracted afterward. This is an appropriate action for the nurse to perform during the third stage of labor, as it helps complete the process of labor and prevent complications.

Choice B Reason: Palpating the woman's fundus for position and firmness. This is an action that is done after the delivery of the placenta, not during. It is important to monitor the fundal height, location, and consistency to assess uterine involution and bleeding.

Choice C Reason: Encouraging the woman to push with her contractions. This is an action that is done during the second stage of labor, not the third. The second stage of labor is the period from full cervical dilation to the birth of the baby. The nurse's role is to support and coach the woman to push eﬀectively with her contractions.

Choice D Reason: Alleviating perineal discomfort with the application of ice packs. This is an action that is done after the delivery of the placenta, not during. It is a comfort measure that can reduce swelling, pain, and inﬂammation in the perineal area.

A. Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. B. Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. C. Skin color jaundiced. D. Chest retractions.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal apical pulse for a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. A high pulse rate may indicate fever, infection, anemia, or dehydration. A low pulse rate may indicate hypothermia, hypoxia, or heart block.

Choice B Reason: Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, infection, or metabolic acidosis. A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, hypothermia, or narcotic exposure.

Choice C Reason: Skin color jaundiced. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a diﬀerent condition called jaundice. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is normally excreted by the liver and kidneys. Jaundice can occur in newborns due to immature liver function, increased red blood cell breakdown, or blood group incompatibility. Jaundice does not aﬀect lung function or oxygenation.

Choice D Reason: Chest retractions. This is because chest retractions are a sign of respiratory distress that indicate increased work of breathing and reduced lung compliance. Chest retractions occur when the chest wall sinks in between the ribs or below the sternum during inhalation, creating a negative pressure that helps draw air into the lungs. RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.

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Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn who is developing sepsis? Select one:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman has just entered the third stage of labor. The nurse would focus care on which of the following? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse explains to new parents that their newborn has developed respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following assessments that the nurse makes would support a diagnosis of RDS? Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?

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