Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse plan to implement? Select the 3 actions the nurse should plan to take.
Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse plan to implement? Select the 3 actions the nurse should plan to take.
Conduct a non-stress test twice per week.
Monitor blood glucose level once daily.
Refer the client to a dietitian for nutritional counseling.
Instruct the client to refrain from physical activity.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale: Conducting a non-stress test twice per week is a common practice for pregnant women who are at high risk, and this client is considered high risk due to her history of gestational diabetes and the fact that her two previous newborns weighed over
4.5 kg. A non-stress test is a simple, noninvasive test that checks the baby’s heart rate and response to movement. It’s called a “non- stress” test because it causes no stress to the baby. The test usually takes about 20 to 30 minutes. The mother lies on her left side, and a belt with a sensor that can detect the baby’s heartbeat is placed around her abdomen. The baby’s heart rate is expected to increase with each movement, and this is a sign that the baby is healthy and getting enough oxygen. If the baby’s heart rate does not increase with movement, it may mean that the baby is not getting enough oxygen, which could be a sign of a problem.
Choice B rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels once daily is crucial for this client due to her history of gestational diabetes and current elevated fasting blood glucose level. Gestational diabetes is a condition in which a woman without diabetes develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. It may precede development of type 2 DM. Self-monitoring of blood glucose levels in gestational diabetes is considered a cornerstone of management to improve maternal and neonatal prognosis. It allows pregnant women to evaluate their individual response to therapy and assess whether glycemic targets are being achieved. This can help prevent complications related to gestational diabetes, such as macrosomia (a high birth weight), hypoglycemia in the newborn, and pre- eclampsia in the mother.
Choice C rationale: Referring the client to a dietitian for nutritional counseling is an important step in managing her gestational diabetes. Diet plays a crucial role in managing blood glucose levels during pregnancy. A dietitian can provide a personalized meal plan that includes the right amount of carbohydrates, protein, and fat for the client. The meal plan will also take into account the client’s food preferences, lifestyle, and weight gain goals during pregnancy. Nutritional counseling can help the client understand how different foods affect her blood glucose levels and how to make healthy food choices that will benefit both her and her baby.
Choice D rationale: Instructing the client to refrain from physical activity is not a recommended action. Physical activity is generally beneficial for pregnant women, including those with gestational diabetes. Regular physical activity can help lower blood glucose levels, reduce insulin resistance, and manage weight gain during pregnancy. However, the type and intensity of physical activity should be appropriate for the client’s fitness level and pregnancy stage, and any physical activity should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
Choice E rationale: Increasing caloric intake to support fetal growth is not necessarily a recommended action for this client. While it’s true that pregnant women need additional calories to support fetal growth, this must be balanced with the need to manage blood glucose levels in the case of gestational diabetes. Consuming too many calories, particularly in the form of carbohydrates, can lead to high blood glucose levels. Instead, the focus should be on consuming a balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients to support fetal growth.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A headache that lasts for 2 days and is not relieved by Tylenol is a concerning symptom in a pregnant client. This could be a sign of preeclampsia, a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby. Severe headaches are a common symptom of preeclampsia and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
Choice B rationale: Blurred vision and dizziness are also symptoms of preeclampsia. These symptoms occur as a result of changes in the blood vessels in the brain due to high blood pressure. The brain relies on a healthy blood supply to function properly, and any disruption to this can lead to symptoms such as blurred vision and dizziness. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately as they may indicate a need for immediate treatment or monitoring.
Choice C rationale: While swelling of the feet is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and increased blood flow, it is not typically a symptom that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider unless it is accompanied by other symptoms of preeclampsia or other complications. Swelling in the face and hands is more concerning than swelling in the feet.
Choice D rationale: 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities is a sign of fluid overload in the body, which can be a symptom of preeclampsia. This should be reported to the healthcare provider as it may indicate a need for treatment or closer monitoring.
Choice E rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of 3+ and absent clonus are within normal limits for a pregnant client. Hyperreflexia (reflexes rated as 4+) and the presence of clonus could indicate neurological irritability associated with preeclampsia, but these findings are not present in this client.
Choice F rationale: Fetal heart tones of 150/min are within the normal range of 110-160 beats per minute. This is a reassuring sign and does not need to be reported to the healthcare provider.
Choice G rationale: A blood pressure of 180/99 mm Hg is significantly elevated and is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia. This should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately as it indicates severe preeclampsia, which requires immediate treatment to prevent complications such as eclampsia, placental abruption, and organ damage.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority nursing action. While it may be necessary later, especially if the client goes to surgery, it is not the immediate concern.
Choice B rationale
Initiating IV access is the correct action. The client is losing blood rapidly, has hypotension, and tachycardia. IV access will allow IV fluids and blood to be administered quickly if hypovolemia develops.
Choice C rationale
Witnessing the signature for informed consent for surgery is not the priority nursing action. While consent will be necessary if the client needs a cesarean section, the immediate concern is stabilizing the client.
Choice D rationale
Preparing the abdominal and perineal areas is not the priority nursing action. This would be done as part of surgical preparation if a cesarean section is needed, but it is not the immediate concern.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
