A client at 37 weeks gestation is admitted with complaints of fever, pain and swelling in her groin, and contractions every 15 minutes.
The nurse, when assessing the client’s perineum, found erythematous lesions on the vulva that look like herpes. The nurse anticipates the patient’s treatment regimen to include which of the following?
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
Penicillin G intravenously
Acyclovir orally
Betamethasone
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is an antibiotic that is often used to treat bacterial infections, but it is not typically the first line of treatment for herpes.
Choice B rationale
Penicillin G intravenously is a type of antibiotic that is often used to treat bacterial infections. However, herpes is a viral infection, and antibiotics are not effective against viruses.
Choice C rationale
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is commonly used to treat herpes infections. It works by slowing the growth and spread of the herpes virus in the body. This would be the most appropriate treatment for a patient presenting with symptoms of a herpes outbreak.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a type of corticosteroid that is often used to reduce inflammation. While it might help to reduce some of the inflammation and discomfort associated with herpes lesions, it would not address the underlying viral infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A displaced fundus from the midline in a postpartum client can indicate a full bladder, which can interfere with uterine contraction and lead to excessive bleeding. This is a serious
condition that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications such as postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
A fundal height below the umbilicus is a normal finding in a postpartum client. The uterus normally decreases in size after delivery, and the fundus is typically located at or below the level of the umbilicus within 24 hours postpartum.
Choice C rationale
Increased urine output is a normal physiological response after delivery. During pregnancy, there is an increase in blood volume that leads to increased fluid in the body. After delivery, the body eliminates this extra fluid through increased urine output.
Choice D rationale
A decreased urge to void can be a normal finding in the immediate postpartum period due to decreased bladder sensitivity from the trauma of childbirth or epidural anesthesia. However, it’s important for the nurse to monitor this because urinary retention can lead to bladder distention and uterine atony, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it’s true that any internal examination carries a risk of introducing infection, this is not the primary reason to avoid an internal examination in a client with placenta previa.
Choice B rationale
Initiating preterm labor is a concern with any internal examination, but it’s not the primary reason to avoid an internal examination in a client with placenta previa.
Choice C rationale
This is the correct answer. In a client with placenta previa, an internal examination could disturb the placenta and cause severe, potentially life-threatening bleeding.
Choice D rationale
While rupture of the membranes is a risk associated with internal examinations, it’s not the primary reason to avoid an internal examination in a client with placenta previa.
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