Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm as a contraceptive method?
History of cervical cancer
History of uterine prolapse
History of ovarian cysts
History of menopause
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. History of uterine prolapse is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm as a contraceptive method. Uterine prolapse is a condition where the uterus descends into the vagina, which can interfere with the proper placement and seal of the diaphragm.
Choice A is wrong because history of cervical cancer is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Cervical cancer is a malignant tumor of the cervix, which can be treated with surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy.
Diaphragm use does not affect the risk or treatment of cervical cancer.
Choice C is wrong because history of ovarian cysts is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs that develop in or on the ovaries, which can cause pain, bloating, or irregular periods.
Diaphragm use does not affect the formation or rupture of ovarian cysts.
Choice D is wrong because history of menopause is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual cycles and fertility, which occurs around age 50 in most women.
Diaphragm use does not affect the hormonal changes or symptoms of menopause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Copper intrauterine device.This is because copper intrauterine devices do not contain hormones and are therefore safe for women with a history of breast cancer and cardiovascular disease.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
- Choice A. Injectable progestins.This is wrong because injectable progestins may increase the risk of breast cancer in women with the BRCA1 geneand may also worsen hypertension and dyslipidemia.
- Choice B. Contraceptive vaginal ring.This is wrong because contraceptive vaginal rings contain estrogen and progestin, which may increase the risk of thromboembolic events, stroke, and myocardial infarction in women with cardiovascular disease.
- Choice D. Combined oral contraceptives.This is wrong because combined oral contraceptives also contain estrogen and progestin, which have the same risks as contraceptive vaginal rings for women with cardiovascular disease.Additionally, combined oral contraceptives may interact with some medications used to treat chronic conditions and reduce their effectiveness.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A.“You need to have a sperm count test to confirm your sterility.”
A sperm count test is a semen analysis that measures the number of sperm in the ejaculate.
It is the only way to verify that a vasectomy has been successful and that the man is sterile.A man is considered sterile when his sperm count is zero or below 100,000 non-motile sperm per sample.
Choice B is wrong because the number of ejaculations does not guarantee sterility.Some sperm may still be present in the severed vas deferens for months after a vasectomy.
Choice C is wrong because the duration of contraception use after a vasectomy depends on the sperm count test results, not on a fixed time period.It may take more or less than 3 months for a man to become sterile after a vasectomy.
Choice D is wrong because a repeat vasectomy is unnecessary and ineffective to ensure sterility.A vasectomy is a permanent birth control method that rarely fails or reverses.
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