Which of the following findings is most consistent with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
elevated D-dimer
decreased prothrombin time
decreased partial thromboplastin time
elevated fibrinogen level
The Correct Answer is A
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by both widespread activation of the coagulation system and excessive clotting, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in a prothrombotic state, which can lead to organ dysfunction and bleeding manifestations.
Elevated D-dimer levels are a characteristic finding in DIC. D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product that is elevated when there is excessive fibrin formation and breakdown. Elevated D-dimer indicates ongoing fibrinolysis and activation of the clotting system.
B. Decreased prothrombin time in (option B) is incorrect because: DIC is characterized by consumption of clotting factors, which can result in prolongation of the prothrombin time (PT) as well as other coagulation tests.
C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time in (option C) is incorrect because Similar to the prothrombin time, the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) can also be prolonged in DIC due to the consumption of clotting factors.
D. Elevated fibrinogen level in (option D) is incorrect because, In DIC, there is consumption of fibrinogen along with other clotting factors. Therefore, elevated fibrinogen levels are not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in the management of septic shock. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. By constricting blood vessels, norepinephrine helps restore tissue perfusion and improve organ function.
A. Nitroglycerine (Tridil) in (option A) is incorrect because: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator and would further lower blood pressure. It is not suitable for a patient with septic shock who already has low blood pressure.
B. Atenolol (Tenormin) in (option B) is incorrect because: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and would further decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is not appropriate for a patient in septic shock who requires intervention to increase blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) in (option C) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication used to increase cardiac output. While it can be helpful in certain types of shock, such as cardiogenic shock, it is not the first-line choice for septic shock when there is inadequate blood pressure response.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The sepsis resuscitation bundle typically includes the administration of intravenous fluids to restore adequate perfusion and address hypovolemia. The initial fluid of choice is often the crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringers (LR), and the recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg. This intervention aims to optimize intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because they may be used in the management of hyperthermia or fever, but they are not specific interventions in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
B. Blood transfusion in (option B) is incorrect it may be necessary in certain cases of sepsis, such as severe anemia or hypovolemia, but it is not a routine intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle based solely on the provided information.
D. NPO status (nothing by mouth) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle. It may be indicated in certain cases, such as when surgery is required or if there is a risk of aspiration, but it does not directly address the sepsis-related variables mentioned.
It is important to note that the specific management of sepsis may vary based on the patient's individual condition, clinical presentation, and healthcare provider's orders.
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