Which of the following findings is most consistent with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

elevated D-dimer

decreased prothrombin time

decreased partial thromboplastin time

elevated fibrinogen level

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by both widespread activation of the coagulation system and excessive clotting, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in a prothrombotic state, which can lead to organ dysfunction and bleeding manifestations.
Elevated D-dimer levels are a characteristic finding in DIC. D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product that is elevated when there is excessive fibrin formation and breakdown. Elevated D-dimer indicates ongoing fibrinolysis and activation of the clotting system.
B. Decreased prothrombin time in (option B) is incorrect because: DIC is characterized by consumption of clotting factors, which can result in prolongation of the prothrombin time (PT) as well as other coagulation tests.
C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time in (option C) is incorrect because Similar to the prothrombin time, the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) can also be prolonged in DIC due to the consumption of clotting factors.
D. Elevated fibrinogen level in (option D) is incorrect because, In DIC, there is consumption of fibrinogen along with other clotting factors. Therefore, elevated fibrinogen levels are not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in the management of septic shock. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. By constricting blood vessels, norepinephrine helps restore tissue perfusion and improve organ function.
A. Nitroglycerine (Tridil) in (option A) is incorrect because: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator and would further lower blood pressure. It is not suitable for a patient with septic shock who already has low blood pressure.
B. Atenolol (Tenormin) in (option B) is incorrect because: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and would further decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is not appropriate for a patient in septic shock who requires intervention to increase blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) in (option C) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication used to increase cardiac output. While it can be helpful in certain types of shock, such as cardiogenic shock, it is not the first-line choice for septic shock when there is inadequate blood pressure response.

A. Cooling baths B. Blood transfusion C. 30 ml/kg of Lactated Ringers (LR) D. NPO Status

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The sepsis resuscitation bundle typically includes the administration of intravenous fluids to restore adequate perfusion and address hypovolemia. The initial fluid of choice is often the crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringers (LR), and the recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg. This intervention aims to optimize intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.

A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because they may be used in the management of hyperthermia or fever, but they are not specific interventions in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.

B. Blood transfusion in (option B) is incorrect it may be necessary in certain cases of sepsis, such as severe anemia or hypovolemia, but it is not a routine intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle based solely on the provided information.

D. NPO status (nothing by mouth) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle. It may be indicated in certain cases, such as when surgery is required or if there is a risk of aspiration, but it does not directly address the sepsis-related variables mentioned.

It is important to note that the specific management of sepsis may vary based on the patient's individual condition, clinical presentation, and healthcare provider's orders.

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Which of the following findings is most consistent with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 66-year-old female patient in septic shock has received fluid resuscitation, but their mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 52 mmHg. The nurse anticipates the administration of which one of the following?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A 30-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 100.2°F (35°C) and high blood sugar. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The patient weighing 147 pounds with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 30, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 391 mg/dL. Which intervention red by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

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The emergency department nurse provides care for a 50-year-old male patient with septic shock. The nurse recalls that the renin- angiotensin system is activated during which stage of shock?

When assessing the hemodynamic information for a newly admitted patient in shock of unknown etiology, the emergency department nurse will anticipate the administration of large volumes of Lactated Ringers (LR) when which one of the following occurs?

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