Which of the following clients is at a higher risk of developing osteoarthritis?
A client who has hypertension and is taking amlodipine
A client who has COPD and has been on frequent courses of prednisone
A client with atrial fibrillation who is taking warfarin
A client who is Caucasian and has had multiple child
The Correct Answer is B
A. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension. It is not associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. While hypertension itself is a health concern, amlodipine does not directly contribute to the development of OA.
B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to various side effects, including bone loss and osteoporosis with long-term use. Although osteoporosis and OA are different conditions, long-term use of corticosteroids can potentially increase the risk of joint issues and contribute to the development or exacerbation of OA due to the impact on joint cartilage and bone density.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots in atrial fibrillation. It is not directly associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. The primary concerns with warfarin involve bleeding risks rather than joint health.
D. Being Caucasian and having multiple children do not directly contribute to an increased risk of osteoarthritis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly irregular rhythms with no distinct P-waves. Instead, it has a chaotic baseline with fibrillatory waves. The ventricular response can be irregular and variable. The description provided (regular P-waves in a sawtooth formation) does not match the typical appearance of atrial fibrillation, which lacks regular P-waves and has an irregular rhythm.
B. Atrial flutter is characterized by regular, sawtooth-shaped P-waves known as "F-waves" or "flutter waves." The classic pattern is referred to as "F-waves" with a "sawtooth" appearance, often seen in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF). The atrial rate is typically between 240 to 340 beats per minute, which fits the rate of 260 beats per minute in the description. The ventricular rate can be regular or irregular, depending on the degree of AV node conduction. A
C. Unstable angina is a clinical diagnosis of chest pain due to myocardial ischemia. It is not associated with specific ECG findings related to the P-wave morphology or rate. The ECG findings described do not correspond to unstable angina, which would typically present with ST-segment changes or other signs of myocardial ischemia rather than a specific P-wave pattern.
D. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are early beats originating from the atria that interrupt the normal rhythm. They usually present as a single early beat with a different morphology of the P-wave compared to the sinus P-waves, but do not result in a regular sawtooth pattern or a sustained rhythm at high rates like the one described.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by weakness and rapid fatigue of voluntary muscles. Key features include fluctuating muscle weakness that typically worsens with activity and improves with rest, bilateral ptosis (drooping of the eyelids), and difficulty with swallowing and speaking. The fact that the client's facial muscle strength is better in the morning and worsens throughout the day is a hallmark of MG. The edrophonium (Tensilon) test is specifically used to diagnose MG by temporarily improving muscle strength.
Antibodies at the neuromuscular junction
Myasthenia Gravis is caused by the presence of autoantibodies that target acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired communication between nerves and muscles. This is consistent with the described symptoms and the use of the edrophonium (Tensilon) test to diagnose the condition.
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