Which of the following clients is at a higher risk of developing osteoarthritis?
A client who has hypertension and is taking amlodipine
A client who has COPD and has been on frequent courses of prednisone
A client with atrial fibrillation who is taking warfarin
A client who is Caucasian and has had multiple child
The Correct Answer is B
A. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension. It is not associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. While hypertension itself is a health concern, amlodipine does not directly contribute to the development of OA.
B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to various side effects, including bone loss and osteoporosis with long-term use. Although osteoporosis and OA are different conditions, long-term use of corticosteroids can potentially increase the risk of joint issues and contribute to the development or exacerbation of OA due to the impact on joint cartilage and bone density.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots in atrial fibrillation. It is not directly associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. The primary concerns with warfarin involve bleeding risks rather than joint health.
D. Being Caucasian and having multiple children do not directly contribute to an increased risk of osteoarthritis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This statement is incorrect because many chronic illnesses are not curable. The goal of care for chronic illnesses is often to manage the condition, improve quality of life, and prevent complications, rather than achieving a complete cure.
B. This statement is accurate. Managing a chronic illness often requires significant time and effort, including medication adherence, lifestyle changes, and regular medical appointments.
C. The trajectory of a chronic illness can vary greatly between individuals, even those with the same condition. Factors such as genetics, lifestyle, and access to care can influence the course of the illness.
D. This statement is accurate. Educating the client and caregiver about the prescribed treatment plan is essential for optimal management of chronic illnesses. This includes understanding medication dosages, side effects, and lifestyle modifications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Black, tarry stool is indicative of blood that has been digested in the upper GI tract. The dark color is due to the action of digestive enzymes on blood.
B. Clay-colored stool is typically associated with biliary obstruction, not upper GI bleeding.
C. Watery stool can be caused by various conditions, including infections, inflammatory bowel diseases, and medications. It is not a specific indicator of upper GI bleeding.
D. Bright red blood in the stool is more likely to be associated with lower GI bleeding, such as from hemorrhoids or anal fissures.
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