A client with asthma is exposed to a trigger and has an asthma attack within 30 minutes of the exposure. The client uses their albuterol inhaler as prescribed and experiences relief of symptoms. Six hours later, the client's asthma symptoms return. Which of the following is true about the late-phase response of asthma?

The late-phase response occurs due to an influx of additional inflammatory cells

The symptoms of the late-phase response tend to respond better to a rescue inhaler than the symptoms of the early-phase response

The late-phase response occurs because the client did not use their rescue inhaler properly

The late-phase response only occurs if the client continues to be exposed to their trigger after the initial attack

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   The late-phase response in asthma is characterized by a delayed and prolonged inflammatory reaction that can occur 4 to 6 hours after exposure to a trigger. It involves the recruitment of additional inflammatory cells, such as eosinophils and T cells, which contribute to ongoing airway inflammation, increased mucus production, and bronchoconstriction. This phase often leads to a return of symptoms or worsening of symptoms after the initial relief provided by a rescue inhaler.
B.   The late-phase response does not typically respond as well to rescue inhalers (such as albuterol) as the early-phase response does. Rescue inhalers are primarily effective for the immediate, bronchospastic component of asthma (early-phase response).
C.   The late-phase response occurs as part of the natural progression of asthma inflammation and is not necessarily related to improper use of a rescue inhaler. Even with proper use of a rescue inhaler, the late-phase response can still occur due to the underlying inflammatory processes.
D.   The late-phase response can occur even if the trigger is no longer present. It is related to the ongoing inflammatory process rather than continued exposure to the trigger. Although continued exposure to triggers can exacerbate symptoms, the late-phase response can still occur independently of further exposure.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While vitamin A can interact with some medications, it does not have a significant effect on verteporfin.
B. Verteporfin does not typically affect blood sugar levels.
C. Verteporfin is usually administered intravenously, so it is not taken orally.
D. Verteporfin is a photosensitizing agent used in photodynamic therapy for age-related macular degeneration. After treatment with verteporfin, the client should avoid sunlight and other intense light for several days to prevent a severe sunburn-like reaction. This is because verteporfin makes the skin and eyes more sensitive to light.

A. Hypernatremia B. Fluid volume overload C. Hypokalemia D. Hypoglycemia

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Hypernatremia (elevated sodium levels) is not a common sign of Addisonian crisis. In Addisonian crisis, the lack of aldosterone leads to sodium loss, which often results in hyponatremia (low sodium levels) rather than hypernatremia. The patient might also experience dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, but hypernatremia is not typical in this scenario.
B. Fluid volume overload is not characteristic of Addisonian crisis. Instead, Addisonian crisis often leads to fluid volume deficit due to the loss of aldosterone, which impairs sodium and water retention. This can result in dehydration and low blood volume rather than fluid overload.
C. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is not typically associated with Addisonian crisis. In fact, the lack of aldosterone in Addisonian crisis leads to potassium retention, resulting in hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is not relevant in the context of Addisonian crisis following a bilateral adrenalectomy.
D. Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a key sign of Addisonian crisis. Cortisol plays a crucial role in glucose metabolism and maintaining blood glucose levels. With the loss of cortisol production after a bilateral adrenalectomy, patients may experience hypoglycemia, which can be a critical indicator of Addisonian crisis.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is undergoing photodynamic therapy with the medication Verteporfin. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a bilateral adrenalectomy. The nurse monitors for which of the following signs of Addisonian crisis?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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