A client with asthma is exposed to a trigger and has an asthma attack within 30 minutes of the exposure. The client uses their albuterol inhaler as prescribed and experiences relief of symptoms. Six hours later, the client's asthma symptoms return. Which of the following is true about the late-phase response of asthma?

The late-phase response occurs due to an influx of additional inflammatory cells

The symptoms of the late-phase response tend to respond better to a rescue inhaler than the symptoms of the early-phase response

The late-phase response occurs because the client did not use their rescue inhaler properly

The late-phase response only occurs if the client continues to be exposed to their trigger after the initial attack

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   The late-phase response in asthma is characterized by a delayed and prolonged inflammatory reaction that can occur 4 to 6 hours after exposure to a trigger. It involves the recruitment of additional inflammatory cells, such as eosinophils and T cells, which contribute to ongoing airway inflammation, increased mucus production, and bronchoconstriction. This phase often leads to a return of symptoms or worsening of symptoms after the initial relief provided by a rescue inhaler.
B.   The late-phase response does not typically respond as well to rescue inhalers (such as albuterol) as the early-phase response does. Rescue inhalers are primarily effective for the immediate, bronchospastic component of asthma (early-phase response).
C.   The late-phase response occurs as part of the natural progression of asthma inflammation and is not necessarily related to improper use of a rescue inhaler. Even with proper use of a rescue inhaler, the late-phase response can still occur due to the underlying inflammatory processes.
D.   The late-phase response can occur even if the trigger is no longer present. It is related to the ongoing inflammatory process rather than continued exposure to the trigger. Although continued exposure to triggers can exacerbate symptoms, the late-phase response can still occur independently of further exposure.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. MS is an autoimmune disorder affecting the central nervous system, not the kidneys.
B. MG is an autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction, not the kidneys.
C. GBS is an autoimmune disorder affecting the peripheral nervous system, not the kidneys.
D. SLE is a systemic autoimmune disorder that can affect multiple organs, including the kidneys. Glomerulonephritis is a common complication of SLE.

A. A client who has hypertension and is taking amlodipine B. A client who has COPD and has been on frequent courses of prednisone C. A client with atrial fibrillation who is taking warfarin D. A client who is Caucasian and has had multiple child

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension. It is not associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. While hypertension itself is a health concern, amlodipine does not directly contribute to the development of OA.
B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to various side effects, including bone loss and osteoporosis with long-term use. Although osteoporosis and OA are different conditions, long-term use of corticosteroids can potentially increase the risk of joint issues and contribute to the development or exacerbation of OA due to the impact on joint cartilage and bone density.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots in atrial fibrillation. It is not directly associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. The primary concerns with warfarin involve bleeding risks rather than joint health.
D. Being Caucasian and having multiple children do not directly contribute to an increased risk of osteoarthritis.

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