The nurse is reviewing the results of the client's echocardiogram and notes that the ejection fraction is 35%. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications will be ordered to increase the client's cardiac output?

Heparin

Adenosine

Warfarin

Digoxin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used primarily to prevent and treat blood clots. It does not directly affect cardiac output or ejection fraction.
B.   Adenosine is used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by slowing conduction through the AV node. It does not directly affect cardiac output or ejection fraction in the context of heart failure.
C.   Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. Similar to heparin, it does not affect cardiac output or ejection fraction.
D.   Digoxin is a medication that increases the strength and efficiency of heart contractions (positive inotropic effect) and slows the heart rate (negative chronotropic effect). It is commonly used in heart failure to improve symptoms and increase cardiac output by enhancing the heart's ability to pump blood effectively.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Splenectomy is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis. The spleen's role is primarily related to immune function and blood filtration rather than the pathophysiology of MG.
B. Thymectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thymus gland. The thymus gland plays a role in the development and regulation of the immune system. In some cases of myasthenia gravis, especially in younger patients or those with thymoma (a tumor of the thymus gland), thymectomy can lead to improvement or remission of symptoms. This procedure is considered in cases where myasthenia gravis is refractory to medication or in cases associated with thymoma.
C. Appendectomy is the surgical removal of the appendix and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. The appendix is not implicated in the pathophysiology of MG.
D. Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder and is performed for conditions related to the gallbladder, such as gallstones or inflammation. It is not indicated for the treatment of myasthenia gravis.

A. Atrial flutter B. Atrial fibrillation C. Unstable angina D. Premature atrial contractions (PACS)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Atrial flutter typically presents with a regular atrial rate (usually around 250-350 beats per minute) and a characteristic "sawtooth" pattern of flutter waves (F-waves) on the ECG. This condition would not present with irregular ventricular rates and is less likely based on the ECG findings described.

B. Atrial fibrillation is identified by an irregularly irregular rhythm and the absence of P-waves on the ECG, which is replaced by erratic activity.
C. Unstable angina presents with chest pain or discomfort due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscles, usually related to atherosclerotic plaque rupture or erosion. It does not cause the ECG findings described (absence of P-waves and irregular ventricular rate).
D. PACs are early atrial depolarizations that can cause palpitations but do not typically result in the absence of P-waves or irregular ventricular rates as described in the scenario.

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The nurse is reviewing the results of the client's echocardiogram and notes that the ejection fraction is 35%. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications will be ordered to increase the client's cardiac output?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis which has not responded to medication treatments. Which of the following surgeries can treat myasthenia gravis?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client in an urgent care clinic is complaining of heart palpitations, fatigue, and shortness of breath. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows no discernable P-waves, and an irregular ventricular rate. The nurse should understand that this finding represents which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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