A female client with multiple sclerosis is being treated with prednisone and the immunomodulator drug interferon B-1a to manage the condition. Which finding is the most important for the nurse to report to the provider?

The client has developed moon face.

The client complains of muscle spasticity.

The client drinks alcohol several days per week.

The client is taking birth control pills.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Moon face is a common side effect of prednisone, a corticosteroid medication. It results from fluid retention and redistribution of fat in the face. While moon face is a cosmetic concern, it is not typically an urgent or critical finding that requires immediate reporting.
B.   Muscle spasticity may develop but does not pose an immediate risk that requires urgent attention.
C.   Alcohol consumption can interact with both prednisone and interferon B-1a, potentially leading to increased drug levels in the bloodstream and intensifying side effects. This interaction can also increase the risk of liver problems, which is particularly concerning given that interferon B-1a may cause liver issues.
D.   Birth control pills have been a subject of debate regarding their effect on multiple sclerosis but a study found that oral hormonal contraceptives did not appear to be associated with an increased chance of MS relapses.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, where the heart is in a chaotic rhythm without an effective contraction.

B. This procedure is performed to relieve significant blockages in coronary arteries that are causing myocardial ischemia or infarction. While coronary artery disease can contribute to cardiac issues, it is not the primary intervention for treating atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response and associated symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, and hypotension.
C. While an echocardiogram may be useful in assessing the overall cardiac function and structure, it is not an immediate intervention for the acute management of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response and unstable symptoms.
D. Synchronized cardioversion is a procedure used to convert certain types of rapid arrhythmias, including atrial fibrillation, to a normal sinus rhythm by delivering a synchronized electrical shock to the heart at a specific point in the cardiac cycle.

A. Encouraging the resident to unpack personal belongings and decorate the room with familiar items B. Encouraging the resident to avoid social interactions until they feel more comfortable in the new environment C. Restricting visitation hours to prevent overwhelming the resident with too much stimulation D. Administering sedative medications to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. By surrounding themselves with familiar items, such as photos, favorite objects, or comforting decor from their previous home, the resident can feel more at ease and connected to their past. This approach helps in creating a more homelike atmosphere and reducing feelings of disorientation and stress associated with the move.
B. Isolating the resident and encouraging avoidance of social interactions can exacerbate feelings of loneliness, isolation, and anxiety. Avoiding social interactions may prolong feelings of stress and hinder adaptation to the new living situation.
C. While it's important to manage the frequency and timing of visits to ensure the resident is not overwhelmed, outright restricting visitation hours can be counterproductive. Restricting visitation could increase feelings of isolation and loneliness, which are already common in new residents of long-term care facilities.
D. Using sedative medications should be reserved for situations where non-pharmacological interventions have been unsuccessful and the resident's anxiety or distress is severe and persistent. Sedatives can have side effects, especially in older adults, and should not be the first-line approach for managing relocation stress syndrome.

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A female client with multiple sclerosis is being treated with prednisone and the immunomodulator drug interferon B-1a to manage the condition. Which finding is the most important for the nurse to report to the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate for managing relocation stress syndrome in an older adult in addition to supportive long-term care facility?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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