A female client with multiple sclerosis is being treated with prednisone and the immunomodulator drug interferon B-1a to manage the condition. Which finding is the most important for the nurse to report to the provider?

The client has developed moon face.

The client complains of muscle spasticity.

The client drinks alcohol several days per week.

The client is taking birth control pills.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Moon face is a common side effect of prednisone, a corticosteroid medication. It results from fluid retention and redistribution of fat in the face. While moon face is a cosmetic concern, it is not typically an urgent or critical finding that requires immediate reporting.
B.   Muscle spasticity may develop but does not pose an immediate risk that requires urgent attention.
C.   Alcohol consumption can interact with both prednisone and interferon B-1a, potentially leading to increased drug levels in the bloodstream and intensifying side effects. This interaction can also increase the risk of liver problems, which is particularly concerning given that interferon B-1a may cause liver issues.
D.   Birth control pills have been a subject of debate regarding their effect on multiple sclerosis but a study found that oral hormonal contraceptives did not appear to be associated with an increased chance of MS relapses.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, where the heart is in a chaotic rhythm without an effective contraction.

B. This procedure is performed to relieve significant blockages in coronary arteries that are causing myocardial ischemia or infarction. While coronary artery disease can contribute to cardiac issues, it is not the primary intervention for treating atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response and associated symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, and hypotension.
C. While an echocardiogram may be useful in assessing the overall cardiac function and structure, it is not an immediate intervention for the acute management of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response and unstable symptoms.
D. Synchronized cardioversion is a procedure used to convert certain types of rapid arrhythmias, including atrial fibrillation, to a normal sinus rhythm by delivering a synchronized electrical shock to the heart at a specific point in the cardiac cycle.

A. Platelet factor 4 (PF4) bound with heparin forming a PF4-heparin complex. B. Abnormally long von Willebrand factor. C. A deficiency of the enzyme ADAMTS13. D. Platelets which are coated with antibodies.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This option describes a phenomenon seen in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), not in immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). In HIT, antibodies against the PF4-heparin complex can cause platelet activation and aggregation, leading to thrombocytopenia. However, this is not characteristic of ITP.
B. Abnormally long von Willebrand factor is seen in von Willebrand disease (VWD), not in ITP. VWD is a bleeding disorder caused by deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor, which plays a key role in platelet adhesion and aggregation. It is not typically associated with ITP.

C. ADAMTS13 deficiency is characteristic of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), not ITP. TTP is a rare blood disorder where small blood clots form in blood vessels throughout the body, leading to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and other complications. It is distinct from ITP.
D. In immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets, leading to a low platelet count. Antibodies, particularly anti-platelet antibodies such as anti-GP IIb/IIIa or anti-GP Ib/IX, coat the surface of platelets. These antibody-coated platelets are recognized and destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver, contributing to thrombocytopenia.

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A female client with multiple sclerosis is being treated with prednisone and the immunomodulator drug interferon B-1a to manage the condition. Which finding is the most important for the nurse to report to the provider?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). When reviewing the results of the client's peripheral blood smear, what would the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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