A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of numbness and weakness which began in the feet and has progressed symmetrically in an ascending pattern through the bilateral lower extremities. The nurse understands that this pattern most closely fits which neurological disorder?

Multiple sclerosis

Guillain Barre Syndrome

Myasthenia gravis

Parkinson's disease

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   MS is a chronic autoimmune disorder affecting the central nervous system (CNS), specifically the brain and spinal cord. It typically presents with a wide range of neurological symptoms such as blurred vision, sensory disturbances, weakness, and difficulties with coordination and balance. However, MS does not typically present with a sudden onset of ascending numbness and weakness starting in the feet and moving upwards.
B.   GBS is an acute autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system. It often starts with numbness, tingling, and weakness in the feet and legs, which then

progresses symmetrically upwards to involve the upper limbs and potentially affect respiratory muscles. This ascending pattern of weakness is characteristic of GBS, making it the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
C.   Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junctions, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue, especially with repetitive use. It typically presents with fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest. The pattern of ascending numbness and weakness seen in the scenario does not align with the typical presentation of myasthenia gravis.
D.   Parkinson's disease is a progressive neurological disorder primarily affecting movement. It presents with symptoms such as tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, and postural instability. It does not typically cause numbness or a symmetrical ascending pattern of weakness as described in the scenario.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This symptom is consistent with orthopnea, which is common in left-sided heart failure rather than right-sided heart failure. In orthopnea, patients experience shortness of breath when lying flat because fluid accumulates in the lungs due to impaired left ventricular function.
B. Pink-tinged or blood-tinged sputum, known as hemoptysis, can occur in left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion and elevated pressures in the pulmonary circulation. This symptom is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure.
C. This finding suggests pulmonary congestion, which is more indicative of left-sided heart failure. In left- sided heart failure, fluid backs up into the lungs, leading to crackles or rales on auscultation.
D. This statement is consistent with right-sided heart failure. In right-sided heart failure, the right ventricle fails to effectively pump blood into the pulmonary circulation, causing fluid to back up into the venous system. This can lead to peripheral edema (such as in the legs and abdomen) and abdominal distension due to ascites (fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity).

A. Plasmapheresis B. Riluzole C. Anticholinesterase agents D. Acyclovir

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Plasmapheresis, also known as plasma exchange, is a treatment where blood plasma containing harmful antibodies is removed from the blood and replaced with donor plasma or albumin. This procedure is effective in reducing the severity and duration of symptoms in GBS by removing the antibodies that attack the peripheral nerves. Plasmapheresis is typically recommended within the first 2 weeks of symptom onset to maximize its benefits.
B. Riluzole is a medication that modulates glutamate neurotransmission and is primarily used in the treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). While some studies have explored its potential use in GBS, its efficacy in GBS treatment remains uncertain and it is not considered a standard treatment.
C. Anticholinesterase agents, such as pyridostigmine, are used in conditions characterized by neuromuscular junction dysfunction, such as myasthenia gravis. However, in GBS, where the primary pathology is the demyelination of peripheral nerves rather than neuromuscular junction dysfunction, anticholinesterase agents are not effective and can potentially worsen symptoms.
D. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication primarily used to treat infections caused by herpesviruses, including herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It has no role in the treatment of GBS because GBS is not caused by viral infections.

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A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of numbness and weakness which began in the feet and has progressed symmetrically in an ascending pattern through the bilateral lower extremities. The nurse understands that this pattern most closely fits which neurological disorder?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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