A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), and a new prescription for riluzole. The nurse understands that this medication works in which of the following ways?

It suppresses the virus which is responsible for causing the inflammation of the nerve.

It prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine to increase the amount available at the neuromuscular junction.

It reduces inflammation in the CNS to prevent further demyelination of nerves in the central nervous system.

It slows the progression of the disease by decreasing the release of glutamate in the brain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   ALS is not caused by a virus or inflammation of the nerves. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord.
B.   While acetylcholine breakdown is involved in other neurological conditions (such as myasthenia gravis), ALS primarily affects motor neurons and does not directly involve acetylcholine metabolism at the neuromuscular junction.
C.   ALS does not typically involve significant inflammation or demyelination (which is more characteristic of conditions like multiple sclerosis). Therefore, reducing CNS inflammation is not a therapeutic target in ALS.
D.   Riluzole, the medication prescribed for ALS, works by decreasing the release of glutamate, which is a neurotransmitter that can be toxic to nerve cells in high amounts. In ALS, excessive glutamate release is believed to contribute to motor neuron degeneration. By reducing glutamate release, riluzole may help protect motor neurons and slow the progression of the disease.

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Correct Answer is ["1.5"]

Explanation

To administer the correct dose of desipramine, which is 150 mg, when the available tablet strength is 100 mg, the nurse would need to give 1.5 tablets.

A. Petechiae on the oral mucosa. B. Hemoglobin of 14 g/dL. C. Bleeding of the gums after oral care. D. Pain and swelling in one leg.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin or mucous membranes, caused by bleeding under the skin. While petechiae can indicate bleeding, they are not specific to HIT and can occur due to various reasons, including low platelet count or coagulation disorders. They do not necessarily indicate thrombotic complications associated with HIT.
B. This hemoglobin level is within the normal range for adults and does not directly correlate with HIT. However, it is important to monitor hemoglobin levels in patients with HIT due to the risk of bleeding and thrombosis.
C. Bleeding gums can occur due to various reasons, including gum disease or thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). In HIT, the concern is not just bleeding but also the paradoxical risk of thrombosis despite low platelet counts. Bleeding from mucosal surfaces can indicate underlying thrombocytopenia but does not specifically highlight the thrombotic risk of HIT.
D. This symptom is concerning for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a thrombotic complication associated with HIT. HIT predisposes patients to thrombosis due to the formation of antibodies against

platelet factor 4/heparin complexes, leading to platelet activation and clot formation. DVT is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent pulmonary embolism (PE).

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), and a new prescription for riluzole. The nurse understands that this medication works in which of the following ways?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["1.5"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse recognize as the most concerning for a client with this condition?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis which has not responded to medication treatments. Which of the following surgeries can treat myasthenia gravis?

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