An older adult client who is having difficulty passing urine is found to have elevated levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The nurse understands that this finding indicates which of the following?

The client has a harmful gene mutation which puts him at a higher risk for cancer in the future.

The client will need additional testing to determine if he has cancer.

The client has prostate cancer.

The client has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   PSA levels themselves do not indicate a gene mutation. Elevated PSA levels are primarily associated with prostate conditions rather than genetic mutations. While certain genetic mutations can predispose individuals to prostate cancer, PSA alone does not diagnose genetic mutations.
B.   Elevated PSA levels can indicate the possibility of prostate cancer, but further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Additional tests may include a digital rectal exam (DRE), imaging studies (such as ultrasound or MRI), and a prostate biopsy.
C.   Elevated PSA levels can suggest prostate cancer, but they do not definitively diagnose it. Prostate cancer can only be confirmed through a biopsy that identifies cancerous cells in the prostate tissue.
D.   BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that commonly occurs in older men. While BPH can cause urinary symptoms similar to prostate cancer, elevated PSA levels are not typically associated with BPH alone. PSA elevation is more specific to prostate cancer but can also occur with other prostate conditions.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Defibrillation is not typically indicated for atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation involves disorganized electrical activity in the atria rather than a shockable rhythm like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, emergency defibrillation is not appropriate for a client with persistent atrial fibrillation.
B. CABG is a surgical procedure used to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked coronary arteries. It is primarily indicated for clients with significant coronary artery disease that cannot be managed effectively with medications or less invasive
C. Anticoagulant therapy, such as with medications like warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), is crucial for clients with atrial fibrillation. AFib predisposes individuals to an increased risk of stroke due to the potential formation of blood clots in the atria. Anticoagulants help prevent clot formation and reduce the risk of stroke.
D. Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are often used to manage fluid overload or congestion in conditions such as heart failure or volume overload. However, diuretic therapy alone does not address the underlying rhythm abnormality of atrial fibrillation.

A. It suppresses the virus which is responsible for causing the inflammation of the nerve. B. It prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine to increase the amount available at the neuromuscular junction. C. It reduces inflammation in the CNS to prevent further demyelination of nerves in the central nervous system. D. It slows the progression of the disease by decreasing the release of glutamate in the brain.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. ALS is not caused by a virus or inflammation of the nerves. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord.
B. While acetylcholine breakdown is involved in other neurological conditions (such as myasthenia gravis), ALS primarily affects motor neurons and does not directly involve acetylcholine metabolism at the neuromuscular junction.
C. ALS does not typically involve significant inflammation or demyelination (which is more characteristic of conditions like multiple sclerosis). Therefore, reducing CNS inflammation is not a therapeutic target in ALS.
D. Riluzole, the medication prescribed for ALS, works by decreasing the release of glutamate, which is a neurotransmitter that can be toxic to nerve cells in high amounts. In ALS, excessive glutamate release is believed to contribute to motor neuron degeneration. By reducing glutamate release, riluzole may help protect motor neurons and slow the progression of the disease.

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An older adult client who is having difficulty passing urine is found to have elevated levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The nurse understands that this finding indicates which of the following?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), and a new prescription for riluzole. The nurse understands that this medication works in which of the following ways?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A female client with multiple sclerosis is being treated with prednisone and the immunomodulator drug interferon B-1a to manage the condition. Which finding is the most important for the nurse to report to the provider?

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