A client on a cardiac unit is experiencing atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response of 140 beats per minute. The client is dizzy, short of breath, and hypotensive. Medications have not been effective at reducing the client's heart rate. Which procedure would the nurse anticipate to be performed for this client?
Defibrillation
Coronary artery stent placement
Echocardiogram
Synchronized cardioversion
The Correct Answer is D
A. Defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, where the heart is in a chaotic rhythm without an effective contraction.
B. This procedure is performed to relieve significant blockages in coronary arteries that are causing myocardial ischemia or infarction. While coronary artery disease can contribute to cardiac issues, it is not the primary intervention for treating atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response and associated symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, and hypotension.
C. While an echocardiogram may be useful in assessing the overall cardiac function and structure, it is not an immediate intervention for the acute management of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response and unstable symptoms.
D. Synchronized cardioversion is a procedure used to convert certain types of rapid arrhythmias, including atrial fibrillation, to a normal sinus rhythm by delivering a synchronized electrical shock to the heart at a specific point in the cardiac cycle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client with myasthenia gravis who has bilateral ptosis and a positive edrophonium test is likely experiencing a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. This client would be the priority because they may require rapid intervention to maintain airway and breathing.
B. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden onset of facial paralysis due to inflammation of the facial nerve. While Bell's palsy can be distressing for the client, it does not typically require urgent intervention unless there are complications such as corneal abrasion due to inability to close the eye.
C. Parkinson's disease is a chronic neurodegenerative disorder characterized by motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), and postural instability. While this client requires ongoing assessment and care, the symptoms described do not typically indicate an acute or urgent need for intervention.
D. A client with multiple sclerosis who has bladder flaccidity and is retaining urine needs assessment and intervention to prevent complications such as urinary tract infections or renal damage. However, this is not as immediately life-threatening as a myasthenic crisis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Whole milk contains saturated fats, which can contribute to overall cardiovascular health risks. However, it's not directly linked to causing PACs. While reducing saturated fat intake is generally beneficial for heart health, whole milk alone might not significantly exacerbate PACs compared to other dietary factors.
B. Black tea contains caffeine, which is a stimulant that can potentially increase heart rate and trigger PACs or other irregular heart rhythms in sensitive individuals. Therefore, black tea is a consideration for clients with PACs as it can be a potential trigger.
C. Bacon is high in saturated fat and sodium, which can contribute to cardiovascular risks and overall heart health concerns. High-fat foods like bacon can indirectly influence heart rhythms, but there's not a direct correlation between consuming bacon and PACs.
D. Eggs and cheese are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which can impact cardiovascular health. While not directly linked to causing PACs, the high-fat content of scrambled eggs with cheese may contribute to overall heart health concerns.
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