Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate for managing relocation stress syndrome in an older adult in addition to supportive long-term care facility?
Encouraging the resident to unpack personal belongings and decorate the room with familiar items
Encouraging the resident to avoid social interactions until they feel more comfortable in the new environment
Restricting visitation hours to prevent overwhelming the resident with too much stimulation
Administering sedative medications to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety
The Correct Answer is A
A. By surrounding themselves with familiar items, such as photos, favorite objects, or comforting decor from their previous home, the resident can feel more at ease and connected to their past. This approach helps in creating a more homelike atmosphere and reducing feelings of disorientation and stress associated with the move.
B. Isolating the resident and encouraging avoidance of social interactions can exacerbate feelings of loneliness, isolation, and anxiety. Avoiding social interactions may prolong feelings of stress and hinder adaptation to the new living situation.
C. While it's important to manage the frequency and timing of visits to ensure the resident is not overwhelmed, outright restricting visitation hours can be counterproductive. Restricting visitation could increase feelings of isolation and loneliness, which are already common in new residents of long-term care facilities.
D. Using sedative medications should be reserved for situations where non-pharmacological interventions have been unsuccessful and the resident's anxiety or distress is severe and persistent. Sedatives can have side effects, especially in older adults, and should not be the first-line approach for managing relocation stress syndrome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Defibrillation is not typically indicated for atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation involves disorganized electrical activity in the atria rather than a shockable rhythm like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, emergency defibrillation is not appropriate for a client with persistent atrial fibrillation.
B. CABG is a surgical procedure used to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked coronary arteries. It is primarily indicated for clients with significant coronary artery disease that cannot be managed effectively with medications or less invasive
C. Anticoagulant therapy, such as with medications like warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), is crucial for clients with atrial fibrillation. AFib predisposes individuals to an increased risk of stroke due to the potential formation of blood clots in the atria. Anticoagulants help prevent clot formation and reduce the risk of stroke.
D. Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are often used to manage fluid overload or congestion in conditions such as heart failure or volume overload. However, diuretic therapy alone does not address the underlying rhythm abnormality of atrial fibrillation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used primarily to prevent and treat blood clots. It does not directly affect cardiac output or ejection fraction.
B. Adenosine is used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by slowing conduction through the AV node. It does not directly affect cardiac output or ejection fraction in the context of heart failure.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. Similar to heparin, it does not affect cardiac output or ejection fraction.
D. Digoxin is a medication that increases the strength and efficiency of heart contractions (positive inotropic effect) and slows the heart rate (negative chronotropic effect). It is commonly used in heart failure to improve symptoms and increase cardiac output by enhancing the heart's ability to pump blood effectively.
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