A client on a medical-surgical unit has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. The nurse understands that in addition to supportive care, which treatment can be used within the first 2 weeks of symptom onset?
Plasmapheresis
Riluzole
Anticholinesterase agents
Acyclovir
The Correct Answer is A
A. Plasmapheresis, also known as plasma exchange, is a treatment where blood plasma containing harmful antibodies is removed from the blood and replaced with donor plasma or albumin. This procedure is effective in reducing the severity and duration of symptoms in GBS by removing the antibodies that attack the peripheral nerves. Plasmapheresis is typically recommended within the first 2 weeks of symptom onset to maximize its benefits.
B. Riluzole is a medication that modulates glutamate neurotransmission and is primarily used in the treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). While some studies have explored its potential use in GBS, its efficacy in GBS treatment remains uncertain and it is not considered a standard treatment.
C. Anticholinesterase agents, such as pyridostigmine, are used in conditions characterized by neuromuscular junction dysfunction, such as myasthenia gravis. However, in GBS, where the primary pathology is the demyelination of peripheral nerves rather than neuromuscular junction dysfunction, anticholinesterase agents are not effective and can potentially worsen symptoms.
D. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication primarily used to treat infections caused by herpesviruses, including herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It has no role in the treatment of GBS because GBS is not caused by viral infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used primarily to prevent and treat blood clots. It does not directly affect cardiac output or ejection fraction.
B. Adenosine is used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by slowing conduction through the AV node. It does not directly affect cardiac output or ejection fraction in the context of heart failure.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. Similar to heparin, it does not affect cardiac output or ejection fraction.
D. Digoxin is a medication that increases the strength and efficiency of heart contractions (positive inotropic effect) and slows the heart rate (negative chronotropic effect). It is commonly used in heart failure to improve symptoms and increase cardiac output by enhancing the heart's ability to pump blood effectively.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While assessing pedal pulses is important for circulation and can indicate peripheral vascular status, it is not the highest priority compared to assessing renal function in a client with TTP.
B. Nutritional status is important for overall health and recovery but is not immediately critical compared to assessing for acute complications such as kidney damage in TTP.
C. TTP can lead to kidney damage due to the formation of clots in the small blood vessels of the kidneys. This can result in decreased urine output or even acute kidney injury (AKI). Monitoring urine output is crucial to assess renal function and detect early signs of kidney involvement.
D. TTP primarily affects the kidneys and blood coagulation system, leading to hemolysis and thrombocytopenia. Liver function is not typically a primary concern in TTP unless there are concurrent issues or complications.
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