The patient is admitted with upper GI bleeding following an episode of forceful vomiting due to excessive alcohol intake. The nurse suspects a Mallory-Weiss tear. Which of the following is true of a Mallory-Weiss tear?
The bleeding occurs from peptic ulcers in the stomach.
This type of bleeding is treated by giving chewable aspirin.
The bleeding occurs from tears in the lining of the duodenum.
The bleeding occurs from a tear in the mucosal lining where the esophagus meets the stomach.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. While effective for reducing inflammation and pain, corticosteroids are generally not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis. They are more commonly used for inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
B. Etanercept is a biologic agent used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis by targeting tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) to reduce inflammation. It is not indicated for osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory degenerative joint disease rather than an autoimmune inflammatory disease.
C. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used to manage pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis. NSAIDs like ibuprofen are often the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis because they help reduce pain and inflammation, improve function, and enhance the quality of life for patients. Ibuprofen is a suitable and preferred option for managing symptoms of osteoarthritis.
D. Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial drug that is also used to treat autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. It works by modulating the immune system and reducing inflammation. However, it is not typically used for osteoarthritis, which is not an autoimmune condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL is within the upper range of normal but may be slightly elevated depending on the baseline level pre-transplant and individual patient factors. For a client 3 months post- transplant, this level could indicate stable kidney function or a mild increase but is not necessarily indicative of a significant complication.
B.A 24-hour urine output of 1,800 mL is within the normal range for adults (about 1,000 to 2,000 mL per day). This level of urine output suggests that the transplanted kidney is functioning adequately in terms of urine production.
C. An elevated white blood cell count of 13,500/mm³ could indicate an infection or inflammation. This finding is relevant in the context of post-transplant care because patients are at increased risk for infections due to immunosuppressive therapy and the surgical procedure. An elevated WBC count could also suggest an acute rejection episode, as rejection can cause inflammation and an immune response.
D. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL is within the normal range but on the higher end. It might suggest some level of kidney impairment, but it is not necessarily indicative of a severe complication on its own.
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