A client diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis has pitting edema in both feet, and has had 300 mL of urine output in the last 24 hours. The nurse should monitor this client for which complication associated with this finding?
Fluid volume deficit
Bradycardia
Hypertension
Hyperglycemia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Fluid volume deficit, or dehydration, occurs when the body loses more fluid than it takes in. In this case, the patient has very low urine output, indicating that the kidneys are not excreting enough fluid. Despite the low urine output, the presence of pitting edema suggests that the patient is actually retaining fluid rather than losing it.
B. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate slower than 60 beats per minute. While electrolyte imbalances and fluid imbalances can affect heart rate, bradycardia is not the primary concern associated with the combination of pitting edema and low urine output in this situation.
C. Hypertension (high blood pressure) is a common complication in acute glomerulonephritis. The condition often leads to fluid retention due to reduced kidney function and increased sodium and fluid retention. The presence of pitting edema and very low urine output suggests that the kidneys are not effectively removing excess fluid, which can lead to increased blood pressure.
D. Hyperglycemia refers to elevated blood glucose levels. Acute glomerulonephritis is not directly associated with hyperglycemia. While patients with diabetes can develop renal issues, hyperglycemia itself is not a typical direct complication of acute glomerulonephritis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Cardiac catheterization is often used in the management of an acute myocardial infarction to assess the extent of coronary artery disease and to determine the need for interventions such as angioplasty and stenting. This procedure is crucial for reperfusion therapy, especially in the context of ST-elevation MI (STEMI). Given the client’s symptoms and diagnostic findings, preparing for cardiac catheterization is an appropriate order.
B. While an echocardiogram can be useful for evaluating cardiac function and determining the extent of myocardial damage, it is not typically the immediate priority in the acute management of an MI. The focus is usually on rapid reperfusion therapy and stabilizing the patient. Therefore, this option is less urgent compared to others like administering oxygen and preparing for cardiac catheterization.
C. Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term anticoagulation management and is not typically used in the acute setting of an MI. In acute MI management, other anticoagulants such as heparin or low molecular weight heparin are preferred for immediate anticoagulation. Administering warfarin in the acute setting is not appropriate.
D. Furosemide is a diuretic used to manage fluid overload and reduce symptoms of heart failure. It is not indicated as an immediate intervention in acute MI unless there is evidence of significant fluid overload or heart failure symptoms. The client’s current presentation does not suggest an immediate need for furosemide.
E. Supplemental oxygen is important in the management of acute myocardial infarction to ensure
adequate oxygen delivery to the myocardium and to alleviate hypoxia, especially since the client’s oxygen saturation is low at 92%. Providing supplemental oxygen is a standard intervention in the acute management of MI.
F. Sublingual nitroglycerin is commonly used to relieve chest pain in myocardial infarction by causing vasodilation. However, it should be used with caution in the presence of hypotension or other contraindications. Given the client’s symptoms and high heart rate, nitroglycerin could be appropriate,
but should be carefully monitored for effects on blood pressure.
G. A clear liquid diet is not an immediate priority in the management of acute myocardial infarction. Diet modification may be considered later in the course of treatment, but it is not a critical intervention in the acute phase.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension. It is not associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. While hypertension itself is a health concern, amlodipine does not directly contribute to the development of OA.
B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to various side effects, including bone loss and osteoporosis with long-term use. Although osteoporosis and OA are different conditions, long-term use of corticosteroids can potentially increase the risk of joint issues and contribute to the development or exacerbation of OA due to the impact on joint cartilage and bone density.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots in atrial fibrillation. It is not directly associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. The primary concerns with warfarin involve bleeding risks rather than joint health.
D. Being Caucasian and having multiple children do not directly contribute to an increased risk of osteoarthritis.
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