Which of the following anti-lipidemic drugs are the most potent antilipidemic agents, and have proven to lower the risk of Myocardial Infarction?
Atorvastatin.
Niacin.
Gemfibrozil
Amlodipine.
The Correct Answer is A
Atorvastatin is a type of statin, which are the most potent antilipidemic agents, and have proven to lower the risk of myocardial infarction by reducing the levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood. Statins also slightly increase the level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, which is beneficial for cardiovascular health.
Choice B, niacin, is a type of nicotinic acid, which can lower LDL cholesterol and triglycerides, and increase HDL cholesterol, but it is less effective than statins and has more side effects, such as flushing, itching, and liver toxicity.
Choice C, gemfibrozil, is a type of fibric acid derivative, which can lower triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol, but have little effect on LDL cholesterol. They are mainly used for patients with high triglyceride levels or low HDL cholesterol levels.
Choice D, amlodipine, is not an antilipidemic agent at all. It is a type of calcium channel blocker, which is used to treat hypertension and angina by relaxing the blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Furosemide is a diuretic that lowers blood pressure and increases urine output. It also causes potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels). The patient’s blood pressure is already low when sitting, and the serum potassium is below the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Administering furosemide could worsen these conditions and cause adverse effects such as dehydration, dizziness, muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and renal impairment. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider before giving the medication and report the vital signs and laboratory results.
Choice A. Administer medication is wrong because it could harm the patient as explained above.
Choice C. Hold medication until next dose is wrong because it does not address the underlying problem of fluid retention and hypokalemia.
The nurse should not delay notifying the provider about the patient’s condition.
Choice D. Check urine output before giving medication is wrong because it is not enough to ensure the patient’s safety.
The nurse should also check the blood pressure and serum potassium levels, which are more critical indicators of the patient’s status.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Class IV antidysrhythmics or calcium channel blockers have the action ofdecreasing the flow of calcium ionsinto the cardiac and vascular smooth muscle cells, thusdecreasing heart rate and contractions.
This leads to vasodilation and myocardial depression, which can help control arrhythmias, hypertension and angina.
Choice A is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not increase blood vessel spasm, but rather relax them by inhibiting the calcium influx that causes contraction.
Choice C is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not promote platelet aggregation, but rather inhibit it by interfering with the calcium-dependent binding of fibrinogen to platelets.
Choice D is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not enhance sympathetic nervous system activity, but rather counteract it by reducing the cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
Some normal ranges for reference are:
• Heart rate: 60-100 beats per minute
• Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
• Calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL
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