What genetic abnormality would a nurse expect in a client diagnosed with Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?
Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
Fragile X syndrome
BRCA1 gene mutation
Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL fusion gene)
The Correct Answer is D
A. Trisomy 21 is a chromosomal disorder resulting in Down syndrome. While individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of developing certain leukemias (such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia), it is not directly associated with CML.
B. Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome, leading to intellectual disability and other developmental issues. It is not associated with CML or any form of leukemia. This option is unrelated to the genetic abnormalities seen in CML.
C. The BRCA1 gene mutation is associated with an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancers. While mutations in BRCA1 can affect cancer susceptibility, they are not linked to Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia. Thus, this option does not apply to CML.
D. The Philadelphia chromosome is a specific genetic abnormality found in the majority of patients with CML. It results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, creating the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which produces a tyrosine kinase that drives the proliferation of leukemic cells.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This nurse is already exposed to a significant amount of radiation and should not be assigned to care for another client with an internal radiation implant.
B. Pregnant women should avoid exposure to radiation. This nurse should not be assigned to care for a client with an internal radiation implant.
C. While this nurse has experience with internal radiation, she is still exposed to radiation. It is preferable to assign a nurse who has no prior exposure to internal radiation.
D. This nurse has no prior exposure to internal radiation and is therefore the best candidate to provide care to the client.
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