The nurse is assessing a client experiencing motor loss as the result of a left-sided stroke. Which of the following clinical manifestations related to motor loss would the nurse document?
Impulsive behavior and hostility toward family
Hemiparesis of the client's left arm and apraxia
Homonymous hemianopia on the left side and diplopia
Paralysis of the right side of the body and ataxia
The Correct Answer is D
A. These are behavioral changes that may occur after a stroke, but they are not directly related to motor loss.
B. Hemiparesis is weakness on one side of the body, but in this case, the client is experiencing motor loss on the right side. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements, which can also occur after a stroke, but it is not a direct manifestation of motor loss.
C. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision in half of the visual field on the same side as the stroke. Diplopia is double vision. While these are both common symptoms of stroke, they are not related to motor loss.
D. A left-sided stroke typically results in motor loss on the right side of the body. This is because the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body. Additionally, ataxia, which is a lack of coordination, is a common symptom of stroke.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This is not an appropriate action as it can increase pressure on the bladder and worsen the spasms.
B. While warming the irrigation solution can help to prevent discomfort, it is not the most effective way to address the bladder spasms.
C. Belladonna and opium suppositories are commonly used to relieve bladder spasms. They work by relaxing the muscles in the bladder and reducing pain. In a client who has undergone TURBT and is experiencing continuous bladder irrigation, these suppositories can be an effective way to manage discomfort.
D. Meperidine is a narcotic pain reliever that can be used to manage pain after surgery. However, it is not specifically indicated for bladder spasms and may not be the most appropriate medication in this case.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This option is primarily aimed at promoting lung expansion and preventing atelectasis (collapse of the lung). While it's an important post-operative intervention, it does not directly reduce the risk of embolic events related to venous thromboembolism.
B. Reporting significant pain (8/10) may indicate complications such as infection or improper healing, but it does not directly relate to reducing the risk of embolic events. While managing pain is important for recovery, simply reporting it does not contribute to preventing VTEs.
C. Assessing popliteal pulses is part of a thorough circulatory assessment, but it mainly focuses on blood flow to the lower extremities rather than preventing embolic events. It can help identify existing DVT but does not actively reduce the risk of embolism.
D. This statement is true and is the best choice for decreasing the risk of an embolic event. Early ambulation promotes venous return, improves circulation, and significantly lowers the risk of DVT and pulmonary embolism in post-operative patients. Encouraging patients to get out of bed and move around as soon as they are stable is a key nursing intervention in post-operative care.
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