A client asks the nurse to explain risk factors for uterine cancer. The nurse explains that the number one risk factor is:
a history of multiple sex partners.
a long history of smoking.
prolonged exposure to estrogen.
multiple pregnancies.
The Correct Answer is C
A. While having multiple sexual partners is associated with an increased risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), it is not considered a significant risk factor for uterine cancer specifically. STIs can contribute to other reproductive cancers, such as cervical cancer, but they are not directly linked to the development of uterine cancer.
B. Smoking is a risk factor for various cancers, including cervical and lung cancers, but its association with uterine cancer is not as strong. While some studies suggest a potential link, it is not recognized as a primary risk factor for uterine cancer.
C. Prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen (estrogen not balanced by progesterone) is the primary risk factor for uterine cancer. This can occur in situations such as obesity (where adipose tissue produces estrogen), hormone replacement therapy without progesterone, and certain medical conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
D. Having multiple pregnancies is generally considered to have a protective effect against uterine cancer. Pregnancy reduces the number of menstrual cycles a woman has over her lifetime, which can lead to lower lifetime exposure to estrogen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While it is true that some cancers of the reproductive tract can be slow-growing and may respond well to treatment, this statement is overly generalized. It does not specifically address the prognosis or treatment success associated with cervical carcinoma in situ.
B. This statement provides a statistic but may not accurately reflect the prognosis for cervical carcinoma in situ, which is typically higher than 75% when detected and treated early. This response could also imply that the survival rate for invasive cervical cancer is the same, which could lead to misunderstanding.
C. Cervical carcinoma in situ is a pre-invasive stage of cervical cancer, and when it is detected early, the treatment is usually very effective, leading to a high cure rate. This statement reassures the husband that the prognosis is good, given that early detection and treatment are key factors.
D. The term "curable" implies a much better prognosis than a mere 50% survival rate, which may refer to various cancers and does not specifically apply to cervical carcinoma in situ. This response does not provide the husband with the clarity he needs about his wife's condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Renal cancer can often present with a palpable flank mass due to tumor growth. Hematuria (blood in the urine) is also a common finding in patients with kidney tumors and can result from bleeding within the renal system. Flank pain, especially in the context of renal cancer, often accompanies these findings.
B. Dark, tarry stools (melena) suggest gastrointestinal bleeding, which is not directly associated with renal cancer. Mental status changes could indicate various issues, such as metabolic imbalances or anemia, but they are not specific findings for renal cancer.
C. While patients with advanced cancer may experience shortness of breath due to metastasis to the lungs or other complications, chest pain is not a direct finding associated with renal cancer. These symptoms could indicate other issues, such as cardiac or pulmonary problems.
D. While urinary frequency can occur due to various urinary tract issues, it is not a classic symptom of renal cancer. Hypotension is also not a typical finding associated with renal cancer unless there is significant blood loss or other complications.
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